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I have noticed many a time that some sentences do not use "to be" before an adjective.

For example:

the things that I learned from that book have proven (to be) useful to me time and again.

Does omitting "to be" from the above sentence change anything?

Tuffy
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Momobear
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1 Answers1

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In general, there is no difference, and the 'to be' is entirely optional.

However, I think in some cases there is a slight difference, in that the 'to be' makes it more clear that you're talking about a short term state rather than an inherent trait of the subject.

For example:

  • "He seems cold" could mean he seems to be chilled or that he seems emotionally distant.
  • "He seems to be cold" unambiguously means chilled.
Darth Pseudonym
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