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I’m a professional scientist (mathematician, actually). I’m not a philosopher.

I’ve got a lot of friends well-versed in philosophy, and they all seem to point toward modernity as a byproduct of capitalism, the last one being a byproduct itself of colonialism. I’ve always been a left-wing person myself, so I also like decolonialism as an ideology, but I feel that, with this narrative about modernity, decolonialism is starting to attack science itself. The roots of science are very antique, even before the settlement of the first colonies of Europe.

This brings me to the main issue. Science is euro-centric in its core… but only because it sprang in a euro-centric culture. Modern algebra itself has a long tradition coming from Arabian algebraists. Is this conclusion equivalent to science being a colonial posture? Is modernity euro-centric? Are the computer or the lightbulb, “colonial technology”? Am I working against my decolonial ideology just by being a scientist? Do decolonialists have to attack science and modernity?

  • Comments have been moved to chat; please do not continue the discussion here. Before posting a comment below this one, please review the purposes of comments. Comments that do not request clarification or suggest improvements usually belong as an answer, on [meta], or in [chat]. Comments continuing discussion may be removed. – Philip Klöcking May 15 '23 at 05:46
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    What do you view as "modernity"? – user253751 May 15 '23 at 13:27
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    What's missing from the question is a specific summary of the anti-science argument you are asking us to assess. In the absence of such a summary, the answers inevitably focus on the silliest, weakest possible arguments they can think of to fill that gap. – kaya3 May 15 '23 at 18:56
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    You might like 'What are some sociological considerations to understands mathematics culture?' https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/98734/what-are-some-sociological-considerations-to-understands-mathematics-culture/98748#98748 – CriglCragl May 15 '23 at 20:54
  • I hate people who claim that imperialism and colonialism are inextricably linked with capitalism. The opposite is true: At the core of capitalism (which I equate here with the less loaded term "market economy") is the free individual. It is well possible that pure capitalism is unstable — forming monopolies and oscillating too much — and thus needs constant regulation and intervention to stay stable. But monopolies and oligarchies are a breakdown of capitalism, not its logical culmination!
  • There certainly are non-imperialist but prototypically capitalist countries, for exampl
  • – Peter - Reinstate Monica May 16 '23 at 14:18
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    @Peter-ReinstateMonica Not sure the cause and effect relation is ultimately settled but there are certainly correlations. Like empires based on military strength might be capped in size due to the speed of power (military). While power in the form of capital can travel at the speed of information which is usually much faster, thus capitalism allows for larger empires, that are less localized (wealth works everywhere) and which require less sharing of power (vassals got means of production, generals got an army, managers get money). – haxor789 May 17 '23 at 10:07
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    @Peter-ReinstateMonica Likewise the "rule of law" and the protection of "property rights" seems to be a vitally necessity for capitalism. While you can certainly trade without that, capitalism isn't just about trade but also, or actually primarily, about the production and investment in the structures that pushed the industrialization would be too risky without. However where are you most likely to find universal laws? Empires. Fractured realms usually have their own rules and customs. Not to mention that the East India Trading company was an empire of it's own. – haxor789 May 17 '23 at 10:20
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    @Peter-ReinstateMonica And the obvious elephant in the room that those countries to whom the stream of resources was directed to, due to colonialization also happened to be those countries which had a leap in technological and industrial development, which further enabled both capitalism and imperialism as both require or at least are easier to maintain with new technology. So whether they are inextricably linked and whether it's as easy as Marx thought, that excess stuff creates the ability to industrialize or whether there's more to it. There certainly are correlations. – haxor789 May 17 '23 at 10:23
  • @haxor789 Sorry, not sure how this text ended up in a comment (keyboard focus where I didn't see it?). Anyway, it is part of what I say in my answer and what you commented about as well. Oh. I see that my answer was deleted. Hm. This was not an attempt to move it to a comment instead ;-). – Peter - Reinstate Monica May 17 '23 at 14:21