How many syllables are there in "child," "wild," and field"? If we look at the dictionary, it will tell us that these are monosyllabic words. There appear, however, to be diphthongs in each of these that lengthen the vowels to make them sound as though there are two. What do our experts say?
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Related: http://english.stackexchange.com/q/36097/8019 – Tim Lymington Feb 04 '13 at 23:14
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Also related: http://english.stackexchange.com/questions/80224 – J.R. Feb 04 '13 at 23:24
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3Diphthongs by themselves aren't two syllables. But the liquid l or r after a diphthing might in some dialects. – Mitch Feb 05 '13 at 00:09
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Diphthings show an unusual vowel shift. – Edwin Ashworth Feb 05 '13 at 00:14
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What is the purported diphthong in field? – tchrist Feb 05 '13 at 00:37
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@tchrist: /fiyld/ – Mitch Feb 05 '13 at 00:43
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1@Mitch What, are you speaking French? Il n’y a pas de /y/ dans ce mot là, *tu* sais, comme nous avons dans ‹tu›, qui est /ty/. – tchrist Feb 05 '13 at 00:46
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@tchrist: some use /y/ some use /j/ in IPA – Mitch Feb 05 '13 at 00:48
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@tchrist: ...or maybe I'm wrong. – Mitch Feb 05 '13 at 00:48
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2@Mitch Pretty sure English has no phonemic /ij/ diphthong, and even if [ij] occurs phonetically, it is a mere allophone. That said, try sounding out the syllable counts in the titular tune of “Strawberry Fields Forever”, and I think you will come up with eight not seven. Curious. – tchrist Feb 05 '13 at 00:52
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1@tchrist: that's just the notes in the song making extra beat. What is 'beat' in IPA? – Mitch Feb 05 '13 at 00:59
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3I've heard these pronounced like /ˈwaɪˌəld/ or /ˈwaɪˌɛld/ and so on, which I had thought might be a local thing and another effect of the Irish an guta cúnta ("helping vowel") that leads us to give film two syllables. It only occurs to me now that Irish doesn't do that between L and D, so it can't be the cause (directly anyway), and logically I may also have been incorrect in thinking it only local to here. (Of course, I'm now over-thinking these and can't think how I normally pronounce those words myself!) – Jon Hanna Feb 05 '13 at 01:03
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@tchrist: wow, I've been really wrong. all these years. /y/ is as you say the front high rounded vowel as in French 'tu', and /j/ is a palatal approximant (which I would call a glide) that is confusingly (at least to me) the first consonant in 'you' and forms diphthongs with vowels. – Mitch Feb 05 '13 at 02:23
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4@JonHanna I think what is happening there is how the liquid consonants L and R in the syllable code following a falling diphthong have a tendency to become syllabic consonants and form syllabic nuclei of their own, because the glide at the end becomes a consonant pivot between two syllables: /'majəld/ for mild and miled. The /l/ certainly becomes a very dark version there, which may help. But this is the same thing we see in hire and higher, and how a person chooses to perceive those ambisyllabic pivots may owe more to metrical demands than a sonogram might suggest. – tchrist Nov 28 '14 at 19:33
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1+1, @tchrist, for bringing in considerations of prosody, which is after all where syllabification actually matters. – Brian Donovan Dec 02 '14 at 05:20
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Where are you from, @Patrick T. Randolph? The Southern US? – Richard Z Mar 31 '19 at 22:05
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Related. – tchrist Sep 10 '23 at 15:53
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I would also add that this is a sociophonetic question and requires a proper survey to supply actual data beyond online discussions of phonetic details, which are always difficult. – John Lawler Sep 10 '23 at 20:09
3 Answers
The traditional way of counting syllables is to say that file and vile are monosyllabic words, and that trial and vial are two-syllable words.
However, if you pronounce vial and vile as homonyms, and trial and file as exact rhymes, this isn't consistent—the number of syllables in a word should depend on the pronunciation and not the spelling.
I believe there used to be a difference in pronunciation between vial and vile which has now vanished for the majority of people.
Nineteenth-century poets seem to have treated trial and vial as two-syllable words, and file and vile as one-syllable words. Keats rhymes trial with phial, while rhyming smiles with isles, files with crocodiles, and vile with toil (this last must have been a near-rhyme, but probably a better one in Keats' English than it is today). Similarly, Lewis Carroll rhymes trial and denial in the poem The Mouse's Tale, while rhyming smiled and child in the poem Phantasmagorica.
Finally, Walker's Pronouncing Dictionary from 1828 pronounces vial as /ˈvɑɪ·əl/ and vile as /vɑɪl/ (here, I'm translating their phonetic notation to IPA).
Thus, it appears that in the 19th century, vial and vile really had two different pronunciations with different number of syllables.
However, today Cambridge Dictionary gives both /ˈvɑɪ·əl/ and /vɑɪl/ as pronunciations for vial, and the Merriam-Webster's dictionary gives the exact same pronunciation for them. Further, I personally cannot distinguish the pronunciations of vial from those of vile on forvo.com. The pronunciation has thus undoubtedly changed (if trial and mile had really rhymed in the 19th century, I am sure poets would have taken advantage of it, and having looked through the works of several poets, I can't find any who did).
So, I must conclude that due to a change in the English language, vial and vile are now (for most speakers, at least) homonyms. Thus, the traditional assignment of one syllable to vile and two to vial is now questionable.
I don't believe that there is a set of “experts” tasked with assigning each word in the English language with a definite number of syllables; thus, I'm not sure asking what the “experts” say has a definite answer. One reasonable thing to do is to say that both of these words are varisyllabic, and thus can be assigned either one or two syllables. People already do this with words like near and higher in British accents (see this blog entry). It is probably time to extend this analysis to field and mile.
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3Many English speakers insert epenthetic schwa before or after liquids like /l/ or /r/ in clusters. There used to be (I don't hear it much now) a fairly large group of Americans who said /'fɪləm/ for film; it may be that the constant use of the word outside the Kodak context has changed our pronunciation set. /l/ and /r/ are the most complicated consonant (semi-consonant, really) sounds in English and one of the last contrasts children acquire in their speech; and their permutations are useful for sociolinguists to track. – John Lawler Sep 12 '23 at 14:36
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4@JohnLawler: The pronunciation of film as fillum is Irish. I believe that you don't hear it anymore because the pronunciation of most of the Irish immigrants is now assimilated, and they now pronounce film the way Americans do. See this website. – Peter Shor Sep 12 '23 at 15:59
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the point is that epenthesis and many other speech traits come and go as speech groups change. That's the point that Labov's work first made. – John Lawler Sep 12 '23 at 18:47
This confusion is the result of a phenomenon called pre-L breaking, for which I must once again cite a Geoff Lindsey video. Essentially, when a vowel sound ending in a glide occurs before an /l/ in the same syllable, an extra /ə/ is often inserted before it, turning wild from /wɑjld/ into /wɑjəld/. This explains the possible appearance of an extra syllable when some speakers pronounce such words. (See the aforementioned video for the reason I'm transcribing that vowel with a /j/ instead of a /ɪ/.)
This paper by Jánosy goes into a bit more detail. Pre-L breaking typically occurs before "dark" /l/ (an /l/ realized as [ɫ]); for this reason, it can occur in a wider range of environments in American English than in British English. A similar phenomenon happens before /r/, as in hire and higher (as mentioned by @tchrist in the comments above), explaining the possible appearance of a second syllable in those words also.
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The words are indeed Monosyllabic. The diphthongs only show that both vowels are pronounced as two non-identical letters, but in a gliding sense, so as to not lengthen the actual word. The words continue to hold only one syllable.
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Yes, the OP may think that syllables are all the same length, which they might be in some languages (can't actually recall any) but are definitely not in English: "straights" is definitely longer than "on". – Stuart F Sep 10 '23 at 16:24