Would a hypothetical sentence be marked with it?
For example, as opposed to: "It's your beating me in chess that angered me." a sentence such as: "It's like you beating me in chess: it'll never happen."
It raises a circumstance that is in theory, so I don't think anything can be attributed to it. The chess match hasn't been won yet, so the listener does not yet "possess" the win.
Another way I could expound upon it is as "A case of you beating me in chess." I don't think this would take the possessive because it's not definite.
Or does it not matter? Would the possessive form of the pronoun be used regardless, and, if so, is it a set rule?
*EDIT*They're both gerunds, but the meanings are changed because of their syntax. The former represents a case where a reason is provided, involving an embedded gerund and the effect. It's the normal situation that's been addressed.
The second is a situation that has not been experienced while it's being said. In a sentence like "I'm frightened by his reddening." it's the typical gerund with a prevedent possessive, all in the present-tense.
"The idea of him reddening." is another type of sentence, altoghether. And on purpose, too. I doubt the answer is the same as that question from the threas that was compared to this one.
Try: "The situation of [a person] [verb-ing]." In other words, the situation where one is performing a verb. Suddenly, the possessive seemls unneeded.
Compare it to: "A person's [own] [doing a verb](The respective activity attributed to their behavior.).
Yeah, the constructions and implications differ, but the extent at which they do leads me to velieve the simple pronoun is actually preferred over the possessive, or should be.
(I'm on my phone, so sorry about any typos.)
