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When telling a story about myself from the past, I have found myself in an internal debate over whether the correct way to segue into the present is:

That was me twelve years ago.

Or:

That was I twelve years ago.

My instincts tell me the first is correct (object pronoun after a verb and it sounds better to my ears). But, I'm not sure if pronouns after linking verbs should be object pronouns. Which is correct?

herisson
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Bailey Parker
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    PhpYourCoder, I think that if we are talking about twelve years ago than both are correct, but for an older age I prefer the former. – Elberich Schneider Dec 27 '13 at 00:12
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    Trust your instincts. :) -- Can you imagine anyone saying stuff like: "That could have been I twelve years ago", "That would have been I if I had gotten married at eighteen". – F.E. Dec 27 '13 at 00:14
  • Related: http://english.stackexchange.com/a/17745 http://english.stackexchange.com/a/2133 http://english.stackexchange.com/a/4655 http://english.stackexchange.com/q/9405 http://english.stackexchange.com/a/62652 http://english.stackexchange.com/a/88319 http://english.stackexchange.com/a/121201 http://english.stackexchange.com/a/125694 http://english.stackexchange.com/q/110601 – tchrist Dec 27 '13 at 01:37
  • This may go the way of the WHO/WHOM distinction...and I think the rule that "if it don't sound right,it ain't right" should apply. Imagine knocking on a door and responding to "Who is it?" with "I". – Bill S. Jan 07 '14 at 19:54

2 Answers2

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Professor Geoffrey Pullum has this to say:

Myth: Expressions like "It was me" and "She was taller than him" are incorrect; the correct forms are "It was I" and "She was taller than he."

Pullum responds: The forms with nominative pronouns sound ridiculously stuffy today. In present-day English, the copular verb takes accusative pronoun complements and so does "than." My advice would be this: If someone knocks at your door, and you say "Who's there?" and what you hear in response is "It is I," don't let them in. It's no one you want to know.

"People have been living in fear of grammar rules that don't exist," said Pullum, who wrote The Cambridge Grammar with Rodney Huddleston of the University of Queensland, Australia. "We're going into the 21st century carrying grammar books from the 20th century that haven't shaken off grammar myths from the 19th century," said Pullum.

Edwin Ashworth
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My inclination is to say they're both correct since in either case your intended meaning is unambiguous. My ultra-descriptivist streak aside, however, I would think that the second is prescriptively more "correct," since you're using your first person pronoun as a predicate nominative.

Steely Dan
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    Predicate nominatives existed in Latin, where there was an actual nominative case to mark predicate nouns. But there is no noun case in English; thus predicate nouns have no case. (I is of course not a noun.) – John Lawler Dec 27 '13 at 00:34
  • @Susan: there is no noun case in English (regular nouns have a single case often called "common"), but there is limited case for pronouns: subject, object, possessive. Not even all pronouns show a distinction between subject and object. The non-personal pronouns show no case, and among the personal pronouns "it" and "you" show no subject-object distinction. So that leaves only a handful of pronouns with any subject-object distinction, and in all situations, it's entirely redundant, which explains why people started confusing the forms. Case is dead in English. – siride Dec 27 '13 at 02:42
  • Is it dead, or are the case markers just zero? – Steely Dan Dec 27 '13 at 03:45
  • +1 good point and also correct..I appreciate your response! – Bailey Parker Dec 27 '13 at 19:44
  • @SteelyDan It's dead. It's kicked the bucket, it's shuffled off its mortal coil, run down the curtain and joined the bleedin' choir invisible. – Richard Gadsden Jun 30 '14 at 12:53