Suffix '-ine' vs. suffix '-like'

Question

In previous questions we learnt how to use words like 'asinine', 'bovine', 'canine' and 'feline', so, after some deep thoughts, a question arose in my mind: why does English, in some cases, not use the suffix -ine when describing an animal trait or characteristic present or recognizable in the human beings?

For example, after some searches I observed that you cannot say 'bulline' but you must say 'bulllike', you cannot say 'birdine', but you must say 'birdlike', and so on.

Can anyone explain, also in reference to 'bull', why in some cases you prefer '-ine' and in others you use '-like'?

Use '-ine' with Latinate roots. Use '-like' with Saxon roots. — Mitch, Jan 02 '14 at 20:47

score 2 · Answer 1 · answered Jan 02 '14 at 21:36

2

As @Mitch indicates in the comment, the basic answer is that *-ine occurs with the Latinate terms and *-like with the Saxon ones.

Part of the reason is that genitive declension of these words in Latin has this basic ending.

English word / Latin nominative / Latin genitive / English adjective

Cow / bos / bovis / bovine

Cat / feles / felis / feline

Dog / canis / canis / canine

Snake / serpens / serepentis / serpentine

There may be ones where we simulate the same *-ine without a Latin origin, but I cannot think of any off the top of my head.

answered Jan 02 '14 at 21:36

virmaior

2,667

Riverine and Wilhelmine are the only ones I can think of; -ine seems to be non-productive. But we still have -esque and -ian to fall back on. – choster Jan 02 '14 at 22:12
@choster but also equine from equis – virmaior Jan 02 '14 at 22:20
I'm pretty sure equus is Latin. – choster Jan 02 '14 at 22:26
Nickel / nickeline are recent, though they are both nouns. I won't mention plasticine. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 02 '14 at 23:59

Suffix '-ine' vs. suffix '-like'

1 Answers1