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Is it correct to invert the subordinate sentence in English? For instance:

When the time comes, so shall we reign the land!

If it is correct, what is the rule? Or is it only in old English?

sterz
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1 Answers1

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That is an archaic construction (and not limited to subordinate clauses/sentences); one wouldn't use it today except in dialog in a period piece.

bye
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    Is something wicked this way comes also archaic? – sterz Mar 05 '11 at 06:57
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    Yes -- it's a quotation from Shakespeare's Macbeth (Act IV, Scene I). – bye Mar 05 '11 at 07:07
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    "I like cinema." "So do I." – apaderno Mar 05 '11 at 15:41
  • Also archaic, I'm afraid. (Even that meaning of the word so only holds in certain specific phrases.) Old forms hold on in frequently-used words and phrases even as the world changes around them. There are a few individual idiomatic phrases you just have to know -- like so do I and how to pluralize ox. There is no general rule of grammar to apply. – bye Mar 05 '11 at 23:14
  • That meaning of so works in a surprising variety of places; see this question. But it is definitely grammatically unique. – Jason Orendorff Apr 15 '11 at 17:58
  • Subject-auxiliary inversion still happens in questions (Do you like cinema?) and a few other places (Not since childhood had she eaten cotton candy; Only on Fridays does he go to the bar.) – Jason Orendorff Apr 15 '11 at 18:17
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    @Jason Orendorff: Indeed - there are plenty more situations were inversion happens - examples similar to "so" (Nor do I; As do I; Never have I...); questions (as you mention); fronted adverbials (In the house lives an old woman); comparatives ("Better still are the ones that follow") and so on. Inversion in general is far from archaic. – psmears Jun 29 '11 at 17:27