I was confused by the ending line of the following sentence from the article titled, “The last, disposable action hero” in the February 28th edition of Time magazine:
“American movie market now makes up less than a third of global box-office receipts, studios tend to favor projects featuring explosions, car chases and doomsday scenarios — a universal language of violence that translates easily in China, India, Brazil and Europe. Almost without exception, the movies stars some beefcake with pecs that make Ben-Hur’s seem puny.”
Oxford Advanced Learners’ English Dictionary defines beefcake as:
Noun: (slang) men with big muscles, especially those that appear in sex show and magazines.
But the text drops a "be" verb between 'the movie stars" and "beafcake." It doesn't appear to me somehow flow smooth.
Is “beefcake” being used here as a verb to mean showing off their big muscles?
Why is the word “some” necessary, after emphasizing “Almost without exception,”? What meaning does the word, “some” add to here?
P.S.
As hindsight, I came to realize that “the movies” is the subject, “stars” is the verb, and “(some) beefcake” is the object. In my above question, I took “the movies stars” a subject as I thought it should be “star,” not “stars,” if the ‘star” is a verb, because the subject (the movie) is in the plural form. Is “The movies star*s* some beefcake with pecs” grammatically right expression?