1

Can I ever use that for people, or must it be who?

Which one is correct?

  • I have friends from all walks of life that I consider my best friends.
  • I have friends from all walks of life who I consider my best friends.
tchrist
  • 134,759
Gringol
  • 197

4 Answers4

5
  • I have friends from all walks of life who/that/whom I consider my best friends.

In a sentence like yours, the usage of all three relative words ("who", "that", whom") are acceptable in today's standard English.

BUT, if you are taking a class, either as a native English speaker or as an EFL/ESL speaker, then you'll have to give the version that your teacher expects.

That said: Here's some grammar rationales.

First, let's parse the sentence a bit. The nominal headed by the noun "friends" is modified by the relative clause "who/that/whom I consider my best friends",

  • I have friends(i) [from all walks of life] [who/that/whom(i) I consider __(i) my best friends].

Notice the gap ("__(i)") in the relative clause. That gap could sorta be filled by the word "them" (in meaning only, though, not physically), and so, that gap has the function of object in that relative clause. And there is a link from that gap to the relative word "who/that/whom", and a link from that relative word to the noun "friends". They are all linked together.

Now, in a traditional grammar perspective, the expected "correct" answer might be the one expecting the relative word "whom", which is in accusative case. Teachers often want that because a pronoun that functions as an object is usually expected to be in accusative case.

But in practice, using "whom" in your example will make the sentence sound rather stilted. That is, a rather formal style.

Because the relative word is fronted (in front of the relative clause), we native English speakers will very often use the relative word "who" here instead of "whom". The relative word "who" is in nominative case, which is usually the case of pronouns that function as subject in a clause. Since the corresponding gap is not functioning as subject (rather, it is functioning as object), traditional grammars tend to frown on this type of usage.

But in practice, we native English speakers tend to freely use "who" (over "whom) -- except for the most formal styles.

Now as to the use of the relative word "that": we native English speakers also tend to freely use "that" (instead of "who" or "whom") -- except for the relatively more formal styles.

Some modern grammars (such as the 2002 CGEL) would consider the relative word "that" in your example sentence to be a marker of subordination, not a pronoun. And so, that eliminates entirely the old bogus argument put forth by pedants that the pronoun "that" shouldn't be used to refer to people -- and by the way, the pedants were wrong on that point too.

You can get some helpful info, somewhat, from regular dictionaries, in their usage notes on the entry of "that". But some dictionaries also have bad info.

You can get much better usage info on this topic by using a usage dictionary, such as Merriam-Webster's Dictionary of English Usage, in their entry on "that". Their info is readable and easy to digest.

If you're in an argument, er, disagreement, with your teacher on this, then you can get some grammatical support from the 2002 reference grammar by Huddleston and Pullum et al., The Cambridge Grammar of the English Language (CGEL).

F.E.
  • 6,208
  • 1
    I feel freakish. I use whom all the time. "For Whom the Bell Tolls", "For those whom thou thinkst thou dost overthrow", etc. I love the sound of it, the fullness, the accusativeness. I'm a throwback. – anongoodnurse Mar 28 '14 at 00:27
  • 1
  • 1 Nice post - especially comment on dictionary info. I wonder what your thoughts are on this other relative pronoun question? Case Seems innocuous at first glance, but actually a bit more interesting. Was asked by a non-native speaker and - unsurprisingly therefore - got shut down because of the great grammatical insight of the moderators... I deleted most of my grammatical comments to help pep up Janus' post, but you'll get the gist. I think it'd interest you.
  • – Araucaria - Him Jul 07 '14 at 02:32
  • @Araucaria I've been watching that thread. :) -- What?! It's been closed AGAIN!? And that duplicate thread doesn't have an answer to the OP's question (as usual). Why am I not surprised. That interesting thread that you pointed me to, which is now closed again, had had me thinking about stuff (one possibility, an extraposition might be getting relativized: "[That people are likely to be harmed by your conduct] is foreseeable"). I had found one Language Log article slightly related to it; but I thought I had actually seen something that discussed something like the OP's example. Good luck! – F.E. Jul 07 '14 at 03:13
  • @Araucaria http://meta.english.stackexchange.com/questions/4969/a-thread-asking-a-grammatical-question-has-been-closed-twice – F.E. Jul 07 '14 at 03:29
  • @Araucaria http://itre.cis.upenn.edu/~myl/languagelog/archives/004084.html The stuff in "9.2" might be slightly related to that interesting thread. :) – F.E. Jul 07 '14 at 03:39