Why do we use have instead of has with doesn't like in the following sentence:
He doesn't have(not has) to go there.
Please explain the grammatical reason behind it.
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The question is unclear. Are you asking what the rule is, or why the rule is in place? In the former case, see the linked question and the related questions linked from there, and read up on do-support. In the latter case, the answer is basically "just because", though some analysis can be found here. – RegDwigнt Jun 08 '14 at 18:58
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The above two links didn't answer my question. I just need to know why is it wrong to write like: "He doesn't has to do this" ? Why do we use "have to" with "doesn't"? – pranav Jun 08 '14 at 19:08
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1The reason is that auxiliary do must be followed by the *infinitive* form of the verb, not by a form like has that is inflected for tense, person, and number. Infinitives are called "infinitives" because they are not inflected; *finite* verbs are inflected, like has. It turns out that the infinitive form is the same as the present for for almost all English verbs (all except be), so have could be either one. But has is always inflected, so it can never follow do (or a modal, or any other word that takes an infinitive). – John Lawler Jun 08 '14 at 21:42