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I would like to express that a person has only reclined for an hour so far today. Is it correct to say:

He has only laid down for an hour so far today.

or is it perhaps:

He has only lay down for an hour so far today.

tchrist
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Jeff Axelrod
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  • You cannot use has with lay; has as an auxiliary indicates the perfect aspect, which would take the past participle form of laid or lain, depending on which verb you intend. – choster Jul 10 '14 at 18:59
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    ...From the preamble, it's lain, pp of lie (the reclining one not the porkies one). However, it's not often used colloquially. – Edwin Ashworth Jul 10 '14 at 19:02
  • @choster are you answering my question or suggesting I change the question? If answering, please submit it as an answer instead of a comment. – Jeff Axelrod Jul 10 '14 at 19:03
  • @EdwinAshworth are you answering my question or suggesting I change the question? If answering, please submit it as an answer instead of a comment. – Jeff Axelrod Jul 10 '14 at 19:04
  • No. For two reasons: this question has been asked on ELU before, and it was correctly closed on that occasion for being unsuitable for this site ('general reference' can include books on basic grammar as well as dictionaries). – Edwin Ashworth Jul 10 '14 at 19:22
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    The only way the first would be correct would be if you had a drake laying the fine down of his breast feathers to pad his mate’s nest with. Otherwise, a person would have just lain there for an hour, since they laid nothing. – tchrist Jul 10 '14 at 19:29
  • See this diagram for more than you wanted to know about lie and lay. – John Lawler Jul 10 '14 at 21:03

1 Answers1

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Of the two options you provide, the first one ("laid down") is more accepted usage.

brasshat
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