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Or maybe both are correct?

I would be inclined to think that 'whom' is correct, because its case is in sync with the verb 'met'. I know that in the languages with developed cases (like Russian), only the equivalent of 'whom' would be correct. But what about in English?

Grammar Addict
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    "Whom" is dying in English. If you want to speak the way most people actually do, it is never wrong to use "who", except immediately after a preposition (and in contemporary spoken English, we usually put the preposition at the end of the clause). – Peter Shor Sep 13 '14 at 18:08

3 Answers3

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In the English of years past, "whom" would be correct. But languages change, and one of the ways that English has changed is to merge "whom" into "who". So given today's practices, "who" is correct and "whom" will just get you strange looks.

JenSCDC
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I would still go with the relative pronoun "whom" being of the wren and martin breed. In the alternative can we forget both 'who' and whom' and just say "Friend of mine that I have met is cute" Any answers?

P R RAJAGOPAL
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Those few of us who care about good English will tell you that as a direct object “whom” is correct and “who” is wrong. And the same time, however, we will tell you that “cute” in the meaning “attractive” is not proper English word, but slang. So there would be a certain conflict of register if one were to use “whom” and “cute” in the same sentence. So I think you should go either for “the friend whom I met is pleasing to behold” or “…who I met is cute”.

fdb
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  • I care about good English, but I don't equate it precisely with the English of 600 ... 500 ... 400 ... years ago. When it comes to the acceptability of usages, people have arbitrary cut-off points, and implying that some of these are incontestable when many others don't agree with this view is over-prescriptive. – Edwin Ashworth Mar 15 '17 at 10:50