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Which of these is correct? Are both correct?

The Tenant hereby sublets to the Subtenant, and the Subtenant agrees to take, the premises of Lot No. 7.

The Tenant hereby sublets to the Subtenant, and the Subtenant agrees to take the premises of Lot No. 7.

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    A comma after take is not necessary, but it does segment the sentence appropriately. Listen to how you say it -- if take dips intonation like Subtenant, there's a comma; otherwise not. – John Lawler Sep 27 '14 at 18:31
  • Both sentences are correct. It usually comes down to a matter of preference and whichever makes for a clearer sentence. – Dog Lover Apr 26 '15 at 22:15

2 Answers2

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For your general question, the answer is it depends. It's best to add the comma only when the comma helps the reader to understand the sentence.

In your particular example, I think the comma does help with comprehension. Without it, there is the risk that the reader will think that the clause The Tenant hereby sublets to the Subtenant stands on its own. The second comma loosens the coupling between and the Subtenant agrees to take and the premises of Lot No. 7, and makes it easier for the reader to spot that the first and third clauses should also be joined together.

Pitarou
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I feel the first sentence is correct. The second makes it sound like the clause 'The Tenant hereby sublets to the Subtenant' is complete without 'the premises of Lot No. 7' which could give rise to legal loopholes.