A good answer to your question can be found here: http://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2625/when-is-a-gerund-supposed-to-be-preceded-by-a-possessive-pronoun
– ShoeMar 22 '15 at 09:35
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Can you give more context? I suspect both can be used productively in the right context. Or maybe this is an example of you not knowing the right context. Or, said differently, it may be an example of your not knowing the right context.
– BrandinMar 22 '15 at 11:24
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Either is correct. There is no difference. There happen to be two different complementizers for gerunds. Technically, they're called POSS-ing and ACC-ing, mnemonic for "possessive with -ing" and "accusative with -ing". As noted, they are identical except for the form of the subject. Simply put, any noun form at all can be the subject of a gerund, and any non-nominative pronoun form can, too. Many people feel that the genitive falutes higher, but (a) gerunds mostlly don't have subjects present, and (b) you can't tell possessive from accusative with some words (Smiths, her).
– John LawlerMar 22 '15 at 14:33
POSS-ingandACC-ing, mnemonic for "possessive with -ing" and "accusative with -ing". As noted, they are identical except for the form of the subject. Simply put, any noun form at all can be the subject of a gerund, and any non-nominative pronoun form can, too. Many people feel that the genitive falutes higher, but (a) gerunds mostlly don't have subjects present, and (b) you can't tell possessive from accusative with some words (Smiths, her). – John Lawler Mar 22 '15 at 14:33