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One of the answers to this question states that "We shall discuss it in our today's meeting" is grammatically correct. To me, that sentence is clearly wrong. While in today's meeting is fine and in our today meeting is OKish (though at the very least clumsy), there's something about the possessive there (our today's) that makes it wrong for me.

I would read that sentence as in our today's (as opposed to your today's) meeting. Similar to in our car's trunk where the our clearly modifies car and not trunk or car trunk, the our in our today's seems to be modifying today's and not meeting.

So, my questions are i) is it actually grammatically wrong to say in our today's or is it just a question of usage? and ii) if it is indeed wrong, how can we explain its wrongness?

JEL
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terdon
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    You figured it out: in that construction our modifies today, and you can't put an adjective before today. In our car's trunk, and our company's meeting, you can talk about our car (one you own) and our company (probably one you work for), but we don't say our today. – Peter Shor Jun 10 '15 at 13:14
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    Actually, if you're Shakespeare, you can say "and all our yesterdays have lighted fools the way to dusty death." So maybe if you have a poetic license, you can say our today. – Peter Shor Jun 10 '15 at 13:18
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    "our" and "today's" both qualify "meeting" and so I believe it isn't wrong (at least grammatically). – Sankarane Jun 10 '15 at 13:30
  • @PeterShor yes, that's what I thought, but isn't there a name for that? "Split something or other", or something? – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 13:34
  • The idiomatic way nowadays is to say "our meeting today". But our today's ..... used to be used. – TimR Jun 10 '15 at 13:39
  • Hi Tim - you really think that's true? Do you have any old-days examples of it?? – Fattie Jun 10 '15 at 13:42
  • @Joe Blow: Yes, I do, and I do.(https://books.google.com/books?id=hwdQAAAAYAAJ&pg=RA1-PA4&dq=%22our+today%27s%22&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0CEYQ6AEwB2oVChMI0Znt6Z-FxgIVsi2MCh2Y4QBn#v=onepage&q=%22our%20today's%22&f=false) – TimR Jun 10 '15 at 13:44
  • @TimRomano that's really interesting. There are even examples as recent as last year. I don't think it's a question of today vs. yesteryear. It was no more common then than it is now. If anything, it is becoming more common. – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 13:54
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    @terdon: American English a different story (https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=(our+today%27s)&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=17&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2C%28our%20today%20%27s%29%3B%2Cc0) – TimR Jun 10 '15 at 13:57
  • Tim - hmm .. every one I looked at just looked like typos, or wrong. – Fattie Jun 10 '15 at 13:59
  • @Joe Blow: There are typos to be sure, but many legitimate attestations. What do you mean "wrong"? – TimR Jun 10 '15 at 14:00
  • Come on man. You know that if I say "the more bigger" or "in last meeting" that's wrong. – Fattie Jun 10 '15 at 14:02
  • @TimRomano there are too few examples to support any kind of inference about an overall trend. I'm still leaning towards all of those being cases of incompetent editors. – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 14:06
  • Very good and interesting question. I would not have noticed the error in "our today's meeting" because it is instantly understandable. It's a bit like saying "Have you got my paper?" vs "Have you got today's paper?" vs "Have you got my today's paper". The latter is perfectly comprehensible, and if it is acceptable as a dialect variant, then it is not ungrammatical. Perhaps, "non standard" would be the more correct term. Anyway, I very much like this question! :) – Mari-Lou A Jun 10 '15 at 15:34
  • @terdon: We all seem to agree that our today's meeting is "not okay", even though I don't yet see any convincing explanation as to why this is so. What foxes me is it's fine for us to invite someone to our Friday meeting - where the genitive would be totally unacceptable to me. Perhaps it's relevant that Friday might be "generic" (maybe we have a "Friday meeting" every week), so you can say Come to our Friday meeting tomorrow, or Come to Friday's meeting tomorrow. But you can't say Come to our tomorrow meeting, with or without the genitive. Weird. – FumbleFingers Jun 10 '15 at 16:50
  • @Mari-LouA cheers :) I think the answer is in Janus's comment about deictics, also mentioned at the end of oerkelens' excellent answer. That would suggest that it is ungrammatical, at least in my dialect. I have next to no experience of Indian English so I can't speak to that. Note that today's paper might be considered as a noun phrase. I believe it is idiomatic enough that it is no longer the paper of today as such, but today's paper, its own thing. In any case, while I still find it jarring, probably "wrong" it bothers me less than others. – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 16:55
  • @FumbleFingers ditto, have a look at Janus's comment. I think that's what it boils down to. We don't like our Friday's meeting for the same reasons we dislike the Friday's meeting. – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 16:56
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    I upvoted Janus's comment, which is certainly "worth noting". But I don't have a problem with our last week's meeting and many other variations on the theme, so I'm not convinced it's a matter of "Multiple deictic qualifiers are inherently invalid". – FumbleFingers Jun 10 '15 at 17:35
  • Dammit @FumbleFingers, I thought we'd nailed it down! Yes, our last week's meeting bothers me far less as well. I wouldn't go as far as saying I have no problem with it but certainly less of one. You're not helping :) – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 17:42
  • I did try to help - by upvoting the most interesting question I've seen here for quite a while! But if I understand @Reg's position aright, he's essentially saying there is no definitive, coherent, and consistent principle involved here, only "arbitrary, but established" idiomatic preference. And quite frankly, I think all this guff about "Indian English" is just that. I don't believe for one moment they're spearheading some new syntactic affordance, because on average "true" IE (as opposed to "non-fluent") speakers cleave to older, not newer usages. – FumbleFingers Jun 10 '15 at 17:57
  • To put aside 'why' for the moment, "our today's meeting" and "our today meeting" are both equally grating (and badly) on my ears. And what it sounds like to me is that performance wise the speaker made a mistake in thinking 'today's meeting' and 'our meeting' at the same time and mushing them together badly (a common source of native-speaker infelicities). And to put them together in a natural felicitous manner would be 'our meeting today'. Now as to why, I have no more charact.. – Mitch Jun 10 '15 at 19:16
  • @FumbleFingers as an aside, InE does favour quite some usage that seems archaic in BrE and AmE, but it also, like any productive dialect, develops new usage, like a trouser or a pant for the, as one might argue, based on lost semantics, trousers and pants. I only dragged it in on this one because I have only regularly heard our today's meeting from InE speakers. – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 21:54
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    I'm going to repeat a previous example of mine and place it in bold. The context is the following. I am looking for my newspaper which I bought earlier but cannot find now, I ask my partner: Have you got my today's paper? If "today's paper" is a noun phrase, then I can be the owner of "today's paper" If I switch the order "Have you got my paper today?" The meaning is subtly changed, don't you think? – Mari-Lou A Jun 13 '15 at 04:58
  • Actually, we clearly can use our today if only poetically.

    Still Mari-Lou; Sankarane: the point isn’t that their are two possessives, or that “meeting” is qualified twice… it’s that there are two rival possessors; conflicting qualifications.

    In “our meeting” the owner of the meeting is us. In “today’s meeting” the owner is today.

    – Robbie Goodwin Jan 13 '21 at 09:55
  • @RobbieGoodwin yes, of course. That's what I say in the question: "our today" means "our today which is different to your today". Second paragraph of the question. – terdon Jan 13 '21 at 10:54
  • @terdon Your intention makes perfect sense and if you look back in detail, I don't see how the wording of your second paragraph supports it.

    If it did, how would there be any Question?

    – Robbie Goodwin Jan 14 '21 at 01:26

7 Answers7

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This seems baffling, but what is special about today's?

I think it comes down to this:

We cannot use two genitives to modify a single noun.
At least not outside Indian English.

Today's is a "genitive".
I don't want to use the common possessive here, because it's hard to imagine actual possession in this case. For this answer I will use "genitive" to refer to the form that is used to indicate possession and that was once called genitive.

Looking for other examples that sound plain wrong, I noticed that it seems impossible to have two (or more) "genitives" that relate to the same noun unless it is possessive, and we actually intend to convey shared possession. In that case we still form a single genitive:

John and Paul's car.

Now, if we use any other noun or adjective to modify our noun, it always follows the "genitive:"

John and Paul's red car.

Note also that when we have a "genitive", we do not use an article. With non-genitive modifiers, we usually have to use an article:

An old newspaper.
John's newspaper.
John's old newspaper.

Note that "old John's newspaper" is valid, but means something completely different!

In our yesterday's meeting, we have two "genitives", namely our and yesterday's, but only one noun, meeting. For most speakers of English, this causes a clash, either grammatical or semantic, meaning that the sentence sounds wrong.

The same would happen with that car:

*Our John's car.
*Our your car.

Note that our John's car can be parsed fine if we assume that the car belongs to our John. In that case, our does not modify car, but John. See also a bit further down, where I discuss John's sister's friend.

We have no problem with the addition of non-genitive modifiers in between a single "genitive" and the noun:

Our great old fast red car.

As Tim Romano mentions, we can have a double genitive like this:

John's sister's friend.

Here, friend is modified by John's sister's, acting as a single genitive. John's does not modify friend, it modifies sister. We can see this because we can add modifiers in between the two, and they will also modify sister, not friend:

John's younger sister's friend. -> the sister is younger
John's sister's younger friend. -> the friend is younger

As Janus Bahs Jacquet points out, multiple genitival constructions are usually parsed as nested, contrary to multiple adjectival constructions, which can be parsed parallel, all referring to the same noun(phrase).

X's Y's Z -> [X's Y]'s Z -> Z of [X's Y]
John's brother's wife -> the wife of [John's brother]
Alice's friend's phone number -> the phone number of [Alice's friend]


Note that I mentioned most speakers of English. This may become untrue quite quickly, because it seems that in the fastest-growing dialect of English, Indian English, this double genitive is not frowned upon, at least not always. The phrase our today's meeting is commonly used in Indian English, even though other dialects of English frown upon it.

The mentioned examples in the comments of our today's specials and our today's speaker will, I think, sound off to many speakers, but possibly not as much as our today's meeting.

It is entirely possible that a weakening sense of possession in the case of today's will make such double "genitives" slowly more and more acceptable for a growing group of speakers.


And then there is a slightly broader way to look at this, and to take in what I noticed before about the absence of articles when we have a "genitive":

As Janus Bahs Jacquet notes (and I am more quoting than paraphrasing here):

today(’s) acts as a deictic. Deictics always add definiteness to a noun phrase, and so do possessive pronouns and determiners.
You can’t mark a noun phrase for definiteness twice (or mark for both definiteness and indefiniteness).

That’s why neither “the/an our meeting”, “the/a today’s meeting”, nor “our today’s meeting” works: today’s makes it definite, so you can’t add another (in)definitiser.

oerkelens
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  • I think you're on the right track. It has to do with how one processes the "genitive of time". – TimR Jun 10 '15 at 14:16
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    @TimRomano why just time? John's Africa's maps sounds off for the same reason, unless we assume that John owns (an) Africa!. – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 14:20
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    Some interesting points here. Could you expand on the difference between the genitive and the possessive? I don't quite get what you mean. Also, our John's car is perfectly fine in some BrE dialects, our John means my son John, the John in our family. I can't even parse our your car, I realize it's an example of wrong usage but what would be the correct version? – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 14:20
  • @terdon: Modern English has only vestiges of declensions, so we're putting scare-quotes around "genitive". – TimR Jun 10 '15 at 14:21
  • @oerkelens: good point. But I meant that if we don't process "today's" in the same way we do Africa's, it doesn't stick in the craw. If we do, it does. – TimR Jun 10 '15 at 14:22
  • @terdon The genitive is often referred to as the possessive form, but in the case of today's I feel it is difficult to grasp the idea of "today owning the meeting". The (old?) name genitive does allow for describing the form without implying semantic "possession". As to our John's car being correct, yes, that is a case of John's sister's friend. I will edit that :) – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 14:23
  • I'm a native speaker of Greek and English and the former has the genitive, so I am familiar with the concept. I had just always thought that, in English, the genitive is the possessive. I think you are making a subtle distinction which is beyond my meager understanding of grammar. Is your point that today's weather is possessive but today's speech, for example, is not? EDIT: or is it that both 's and our are genitives? I'd missed that. – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 14:26
  • @terdon: yes, our is a possessive "genitive", and today's is also a "genitive". I just tried to avoid confusion for people who would point out that our means that we "owned" the meeting, whereas today does not own it. Grammatically, both are genitive forms, though. – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 14:31
  • Our today's speaker.. Our today's dinner specials... are contemporary examples, I think, where the "possessiveness" of "today's" is significantly weakened by collocation. – TimR Jun 10 '15 at 14:32
  • @TimRomano I admit they sound marginally better but I still find our today's speaker wrong. Our today's specials is different since today's special is a compound noun there. Different kettle of fish. – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 14:34
  • @TimRomano: both sound like InE to me, but indeed, the weakening of the semantic possessive may well be an explanation why they are commonly accepted. Or would you say those two phrases are common in AmE or BrE? – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 14:34
  • To phrase your point more simply, to most native English speakers, multiple genitival constructions will be inherently nested, rather than parallel (“X’s Y’s Z” always means the [Y’s Z] that belongs to X, never the Z that belongs to X and Y). This is different from multiple adjectives, which can be either parallel or nested (i.e., “an old brick house” = nested, it’s a brick house that is old, not a house that is brick and old; but “an old, red house” = parallel, a house that is old and red). – Janus Bahs Jacquet Jun 10 '15 at 14:36
  • Relative to "our speaker today", "our meeting today", "our specials today" the "our today's X" form is very rare in AmE. – TimR Jun 10 '15 at 14:36
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    @JanusBahsJacquet "X’s Y’s Z” always means the [Y’s Z] that belongs to X. Don;t you mean ""X’s Y’s Z” always means the Z that belongs to [X's Y]? John's brother's wife is the wife of [John's brother], not the [brother's wife] that belongs to John. I think John would object. – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 14:40
  • @oerkelens Good point. Well, depends on the specific example, I’d say. But at any rate, whether they are left-branch nested ([John’s rabbit’s] foot) or right-branch nested (John’s [rabbit’s foot]), they are always nested, never parallel. – Janus Bahs Jacquet Jun 10 '15 at 14:42
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    Hello. I am your devil's advocate. Don't touch my Ben and Jerry's ice or my McDonald's burger. – RegDwigнt Jun 10 '15 at 14:44
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    @RegDwigнt Three good examples. All of those, of course, have only one genitive modifying each noun phrase. – Janus Bahs Jacquet Jun 10 '15 at 14:45
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    @RegDwigнt: my [old devil's advocate], my [yummy B&J's ice] and my [new McD's burger]. As Janus noted, every noun phrase is only modified by one genitive. But they are lovely examples. This answer is turning into a book :D – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 14:56
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    So, by convoluted reasoning, we can say "our today's meeting", if "our" modifies "today". For example: our company has offices all over the world. When it is "today" here it may be yesterday or tomorrow at some other office. So when you refer to a meeting as "today's meeting" they may ask "which 'today'?" and you can say "our today". Convoluted as I said. – GEdgar Jun 10 '15 at 15:00
  • @GEdgar: yes, indeed. It's not even as strange as you think, because it is exactly why my life's dream is an acceptable phrase, even if life is just a bit of a longer time span than today :D – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 15:05
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    Oh, it’s probably worth noting also that today(’s) acts as a deictic, which is why “our today’s meeting” doesn’t work. Deictics always add definiteness to a noun phrase, and so do possessive pronouns and determiners; and you can’t mark a noun phrase for definiteness twice (or mark for both definiteness and indefiniteness). That’s why neither “the/an our meeting”, “the/a today’s meeting”, nor “our today’s meeting” works: today’s makes it definite, so you can’t add another (in)definitiser. (This doesn’t go when today is used as a simple, non-deictic noun, as in @GEdgar’s example.) – Janus Bahs Jacquet Jun 10 '15 at 15:06
  • @JanusBahsJacquet I think you just put your finger on it. Oerklelens, perhaps you could include that (or a slightly uncondensed version of it) in your answer? – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 15:14
  • McDonald's is just an adjective like "yellow", that happens to have originated as a brand name (that happens to have an apostrophe in it). it has zero relation to the question at hand. – Fattie Jun 10 '15 at 15:16
  • There you go. Janus cracks the jackpot. Now was that that hard. – RegDwigнt Jun 10 '15 at 15:17
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    "The phrase our today's meeting is commonly used in Indian English" where - never heard it. What region? – Fattie Jun 10 '15 at 15:17
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    @joe: so, by that token, since "today's" is just an adjective like "current" (or "upcoming", or "latest", depending on perspective), and since we can totally say "my current meeting", it is perfectly fine to say "my today's meeting". QED. I can do this all day. – RegDwigнt Jun 10 '15 at 15:19
  • @JanusBahsJacquet: But, if it is definiteness, instead of genitiveness, then what about the last word, the only time? Those sound quite definite, even if they aren't. I agree with your and Oerkelens' explanation in general, but I have a feeling it is either more complicated or more arbitrary. P.S. These our last words is even possible in older/archaic English. http://www.bartleby.com/224/10000.html Perhaps the only difference is that we would now consider that appositive and punctuate it so... just as King John is an unpunctuated appositive, in a way, my brother Orthus. – Cerberus - Reinstate Monica Jun 10 '15 at 15:23
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    (today's is not just an adjective. don't use phraes like "do it all day" unless you're way on top of your game :) ) Hey oerkelens .. you know how you mention in passing "our John's car". While I digest, I'm not sure if you meant that specific pair "our Personname's" or if you meant "our something's" more generally. But. Were you aware that in ScE (scottish English :) ) it's very common to talk about family member's, like that, and indeed listing them all the way back. For example, my Mom is "our Sadie". And I'm "Our Sadie's Johnnie"....(cont..) – Fattie Jun 10 '15 at 15:25
  • (cont) And my kid is "Our Sadie's Johnnie's wee Penny" and so on (for a long boring time :) ). So that "Our Oerk..." thing is very Scottish sounding. I'm not totally sure how you are referring to the InE aspect, but, of course, much InE is just ScE, there's that weird thing (from saying "nite nite" to a host of forms). – Fattie Jun 10 '15 at 15:26
  • @Cerberus Those are the textbook example of definite: they have a definite article, which is a determiner (as are deictics, at least to some degree) and always makes its NP definite. “These our last words” is indeed tougher to manage; I suppose I’d think of that as these (determiner) modifying our last words (NP), which in itself is made up of our (determiner) modifying last words (NP), itself made up of last (adjective) modifying words (head noun). A determiner modifying a NP that already has a determiner is thus possible, but has fallen out of currency. – Janus Bahs Jacquet Jun 10 '15 at 16:11
  • @JoeBlow That’s not just Scottish—it’s common throughout the British Isles. And no, McDonald’s isn’t an adjective—it’s a noun can be used as an adjunct. I overlooked this before, but it’s not really a genitive, either: clearly, we can all see that it’s originally the possessive of McDonald, but it acts as a simple noun, not a genitive; i.e., we can say “a McDonald’s burger”, but not “a Burger King’s burger” (because again we get the determiner marking indefiniteness, but the genitive proper noun marking definiteness). – Janus Bahs Jacquet Jun 10 '15 at 16:14
  • @JoeBlow I've heard several people from Mumbai use it. Originally they came from area's as far apart as Delhi, Kerala and Gujarat. As for our John's car, I already put a note under it because it can be parsed in several ways. – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 16:21
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    I'm downvoting because I disagree with the bolded statement, which appears to be the main thrust of the answer. There's nothing wring with If the sommelier intimidates you, just borrow John's Bluffer's Guide to Wine. And if you protest that Bluffer's Guide to Wine is a "composite proper noun" that won't bear deconstruction in such contexts, I shall sulk! – FumbleFingers Jun 10 '15 at 17:06
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    @FumbleFingers he's not arguing against that. Note the John's sister's friend example. That is just a case of John's X where the X happens to contain a possessive. It is not the same as our yesterday's paper. – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 17:45
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    @FumbleFingers John's modifies Bluffer's Guide, just as I do mention in my answer. If John's and Bluffer's both modify Guide, I shall sulk. But I'm afraid today I'm not the sulky one ;) John's modifies a whole noun phrase, modifiers tend to do those kind of things. – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 20:12
  • Hi Janus, yes McDonald's (a brand name that happens to have an apostrophe in it, being used as an adjective like "yellow") is not a genitive; has nothing to do with your argument. I can assure you that Our Sandy's Sally's Lass is not used in Kensington. :) Check out Tanner's answer, you guys need to analyse it! Finally WTF nobody even voted for my answer, and it started all this great answer!!! :) talk about no gratitude! :) – Fattie Jun 11 '15 at 02:27
  • As an Indian, I'm curious. I've never heard any competent speaker say 'Our today's meeting', and I don't remember reading it in any Indian publication. Do you have any references to support that this is valid in InE? If you don't, please consider removing it from your post. It isn't that relevent anyway. Pretty please. It's a poular question and this answer is possibly sending the wrong message out. PS- Note that Sankarane, who called this form correct in the linked question, is from Canada. – Tushar Raj Jun 11 '15 at 09:07
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    @TusharRaj: I was speaking of personal experience, hearing it from speakers I consider highly proficient. But there are online sources, for instance Facebook, their today's meeting in the Indian Express, ... – oerkelens Jun 11 '15 at 09:21
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    ... and interestingly, the Pakistani Daily Times. I don't see what "wrong" message this would be sending out. InE is just another dialect of English, at par with AmE or BrE, with its own typical examples of usage. It is not "bad" that InE is different from BrE or AmE, it is natural and normal. – oerkelens Jun 11 '15 at 09:22
  • This usage is not completely restricted to InE, by the way. As the comments show, there are quite some similar expressions that sound at least "almost" OK to other speakers. Here's an example from a Malinese Toastmasters group on Facebook. Toastmasters is an English-language speaking club with, in general, a high level of proficiency. – oerkelens Jun 11 '15 at 09:25
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    @oerkelens: I see. I take back my objections. I guess I'm not up to speed :) Thanks for saying InE is at par with BrE and AmE, because not everyone sees it that way. – Tushar Raj Jun 11 '15 at 09:36
  • @oerkelens: Btw, among Indian dailies, I only trust The Hindu. (No results). And I'm not on Facebook. Maybe that's why I'm not up to speed. – Tushar Raj Jun 11 '15 at 09:39
  • @TusharRaj I know, alas :) Look up David Crystal, he has some interesting view on InE (he once said the 19th century was the century of BrE, the 20th of AmE, and the 21st will be the century of InE). I cannot watch this video right now, but it might be interesting. – oerkelens Jun 11 '15 at 09:43
  • @TusharRaj: I hear this construction rather a lot from Indian English speakers. – Lightness Races in Orbit Jun 11 '15 at 15:10
  • @oerkelens Are we to take that Indian Express article as grammatical in InE? There's a lot of things nonstandard in BrE/AmE. "The decision to meeting the Governor", etc. – Neil W Jun 12 '15 at 03:49
  • @FumbleFingers No, it because in "a [Bluffer's Guide]" the word bluffer has the function of modifier, not determiner. A bit like "I want to buy a [man's jumper] where the phrase man's doesn't refer to any particular man. It describes the type of jumper. Unless you literally are wanting to buy someone else's jumper! Incidentally, if you find whose each grammatical, for example if you read seventeenth century literature, you might find two determiners acceptable in OP's example. Lot's of examples in the bible, for example: "this your son" [Note this isn't: "This, your son"]. – Araucaria - Him Jun 13 '15 at 12:33
  • Erm how about "John's and Mary's families"? – Araucaria - Him Jun 13 '15 at 12:34
  • @Araucaria: Your comments imply you think every usage must be unambiguously either grammatical or not, and that there are absolute rules governing every usage. Which may give some justification for quibbling over my Bluffer's Guide example, but I don't really see how you square that principle with the fact that usage changes over time. The fact of the matter is I'm not alone in finding our last week's meeting relatively acceptable, whereas our today['s] meeting doesn't work for me at all. (And I defy you to articulate a rule to explain that! :) – FumbleFingers Jun 13 '15 at 12:57
  • @FumbleFingers It's "[our last week]'s meeting" like "[my sister]'s boyfriend" but the OP's question is about "our [yesterday's meeting]" which is a bit like saying "an [Obama's fan]" – Araucaria - Him Jun 13 '15 at 13:10
  • @FumbleFingers But if you could find a good sense for our yesterday on its own then you could probably find a context where [our yesterday]'s X would be OK. But it would have to be pretty contrived, though. – Araucaria - Him Jun 13 '15 at 13:17
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    I like your answer, but a) Do you have any evidence for your Indian English assertion, because I can't find any supporting evidence, and b) it might help to distinguish determiners and modifiers in your post :) – Araucaria - Him Jun 13 '15 at 13:25
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Usually, a noun phrase in English must have exactly one determiner: you can say "I drove the car" or "I drove my car", but not "I drove car" or "I drove the my car".

Certain nouns (such as plural nouns and proper nouns) don't need determiners: "I love bees", "I love milk", "I love Paris", "I love biology". But I can't think of a case where it's ever legal to use two or more determiners for a single noun phrase. (A possible example would be "all my children", but I'm not sure "all" is acting as a determiner there.)

"Our today's meeting" is illegal because the noun phrase "meeting" has two determiners, "our" and "today's". It would also be illegal to say "the today's meeting" or "our the meeting".

Tanner Swett
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  • A remarkably elegant answer from left field! – Fattie Jun 11 '15 at 02:23
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    You’re right about all: it’s a predeterminer, not a determiner, and thus doesn’t violate the single-determiner restriction. For some reason, I had never realised (or happened upon) the fact that NPs marked with the Saxon genitive function as determiners before. How this came to be, I have no idea—seems like an obvious thing I should have known. – Janus Bahs Jacquet Jun 11 '15 at 08:38
  • @janus and Tanner, how about these my children? Doesn't that have 2 determiners? Or is it a predetermined again? Great answer, by the way. – terdon Jun 12 '15 at 01:45
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    @terdon "These my children" sounds incorrect to me, unless you're saying "these, my children" (using "these" as a pronoun instead of as a determiner) or "these are my children" (leaving out the "are", as some dialects often do). – Tanner Swett Jun 12 '15 at 03:03
  • @TannerSwett I was misquoting the Bible, I guess I was looking for Verily I say unto you, Inasmuch as ye have done it unto one of the least of these my brethren, ye have done it unto me which is from the King James version. Dang, I thought it was Shakespeare. I read it as these who are my children. I take it you are suggesting that because the who are is elided, it's not the same construction, is that correct? – terdon Jun 12 '15 at 10:06
  • @terdon That sounds like a plausible explanation, but I'm not actually sure. – Tanner Swett Jun 12 '15 at 16:14
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    "It would also be illegal..." Illegal? As in "against the law", illegal? – Mari-Lou A Jun 13 '15 at 04:46
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    @Terdon, That's because in middle English it was possible to use two genitives together, in fact it was possible to use a possessive and another determiner too. So in archaic forms of English and those trying to evoke archaic forms of English you'll find such constructions that are basically ungrammatical in Modern English ... – Araucaria - Him Jun 13 '15 at 12:25
  • @terdon However, some archaic fossilized uses can be found in Indian maths exam papers, and people who read old maths textbooks such as Pete Shor and John Hana might find it acceptable. So will people who read a lot of old poets from the sixteen hundreds such as such as Dryden. For example, Fumblefingers :) – Araucaria - Him Jun 13 '15 at 12:25
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    @Tanner Swett: Your statement, "Our today's meeting" is illegal because the noun phrase "meeting" has two determiners." brings to mind several other examples such as: "our new neighbours", "my math teacher", "your great answer", "our afternoon break", etc. where there are two determiners modifying the same noun. There're two determiners in these examples. Why would they not be, say, "legal"? – Sankarane Jun 13 '15 at 22:41
  • @sankarane You could ask a main question on here: "what are the differences between determiners and adjectives?" :) or even better "What is determiner". It is a good question. The answer to your question to Tanner Swett is that possessive words for example "Bob's" or "todays" function as determiners in the sentence, whereas great and afternoon function as modifiers. You can have many modifiers in a noun phrase "the great big brown lazy fox", but you can only have one central determiner. *"the our friend" is definitely wrong! :) – Araucaria - Him Jun 14 '15 at 10:43
  • @Araucaria: Thanks for the good suggestion! There's no question about "the" and "our" next to each other. The question is about "our today's meeting". A comment on one least one of my examples, viz., "our afternoon break" could have been helpful, I guess :-) I believe a 'genitive' can also be a modifier. – Sankarane Jun 14 '15 at 11:37
  • @Sankarane So today's is possessive like Ben's or our, and it would normally function as a determiner. But afternoon is not possessive. When we see it before another noun, it is normally a modifier, not a determiner. So it has the same kind of grammatical function as an adjective such as short in the short meeting – Araucaria - Him Jun 14 '15 at 11:45
  • Good! I think, "today's" is used because "today meeting" isn't acceptable, in the same way as "afternoon's". Therefore, I tend to think that both "today's" and "afternoon" (in "the afternoon break") have similar functions. – Sankarane Jun 14 '15 at 11:55
  • @Sankarane but we can use a posessive as a modifier too. So we can have two man's wristwatches and three lady's wristwatches. However, when genitives are used as possessives like this they cannot be definite (man in man's wristwatch cannot refer to a specific person). So we cannot say an Obama's fan, because we know exactly who Obama is. Today is a deictic pronoun. We always know which day it is referring to. In a compound, we might find a today X but not a today's X. However, in the past, the language used to be different! So we could have said this a few hundred years ago! – Araucaria - Him Jun 14 '15 at 11:56
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    In something like "We are going to visit your father's old people's home", would the noun phrase "your father's old people's home" be considered to be illegal? – F.E. Jun 15 '15 at 19:12
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    @F.E. That's another exception. In that phrase, the word "home" can be seen as having two determiners, "your father's" and "old people's", but for whatever reason, "old people's home" is treated as if it were a plain noun phrase without a determiner. "Your father's home" would not be an exception, because in that phrase, the word "home" only has one determiner, which is "your father's". – Tanner Swett Jul 01 '15 at 02:00
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    @F.E.: That is one of the exceptions discussed here: articles with the possessive nouns in the plural – herisson Dec 03 '15 at 20:00
  • I think the statement that "'I can't think of a case where it's ever legal to use two or more determiners for a single noun phrase" overstates the rule. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_determiners#Combinations_of_determiners for many exceptions. – David Siegel May 28 '19 at 22:42
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I think I have an example in which the phrase "our today's meeting" might be uttered by a speaker of English, at least in informal conversation.

Alice and Bob are in an office in New York, USA, talking on the phone to Colleen, who is in an office in Perth, Australia. Alice, Bob, and Colleen are members of a team working on a project together, for which they have a status meeting (by teleconference) every weekday at 7 am, New York time. The conversation below, however, is not from the regular status meeting; it occurs when the local time in New York is 7 pm on Tuesday, but the local time in Perth is 7 am on Wednesday.

Alice: "Doris made a good point in today's status meeting." [She is referring to the meeting that occurred at 7 am on Tuesday, New York time, which (for Bob and Alice) is the same day as the day of this conversation.]

Colleen: "What do you mean? Today's meeting hasn't even happened yet." [She is referring to the meeting that will occur at 7 pm on Wednesday, Perth time, which (for Colleen) is the same day as the day of this conversation.]

Alice: "Sorry, I meant our today's meeting, not your today's meeting."

I would hope this phrase would not show up in the team's final report, however. It's extremely awkward in print.

David K
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  • If it did appear in print, I'd be very tempted to hyphenate "our-today's meeting" to emphasize that it's the meeting belonging to our today, not the today's meeting belonging to us. – David Richerby Jun 12 '15 at 09:32
  • Yes, that would work but is not really the issue I have here. If the our is modifying today's and not meeting the problem goes away. The question here is why we can't combine our and today's when both are modifying meeting. – terdon Jun 12 '15 at 10:08
  • @terdon Could we say that this is "your my question," so that both your and my are modifying question? If I say something about "my cousin Sally's cookies," is it possible that the cookies are both mine and Sally's but Sally is someone else's cousin, not mine? Rather than repeat what oerkelens and Tanner Swett have written, let me just defer to their explanations of how multiple genitives combine and how they don't (for most English-speaking populations). – David K Jun 12 '15 at 12:18
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    @DavidK I don't understand what you mean. Of course we can't say your my question since it is both wrong and nonsensical anyway :). My previous comment was pointing out that your example is not a case of what we're discussing here. If our today is taken to mean our, as opposed to your, today, that's a completely different construction. The issue is about when both our and today's modify the same object. My cousin Sally's cookies is also different since my modifies cousin and Sally's modifies cookies – terdon Jun 12 '15 at 12:27
  • @terdon The point is that in "our today's meeting," at least in American English, if the phrase has any meaning at all, our unambiguously modifies today, just as our unambiguously modifies John in "our John's car" (as discussed in the comments to oerkelens's answer). Insofar as we balk at interpreting consecutive genitives this way--we do not accept that your modifies my in "your my question"--we consider the construction to be nonsense. – David K Jun 12 '15 at 12:38
  • @terdon I meant for cousin Sally to be a single noun phrase, as in "cousin Sally's cookies," but you interpreted cousin and Sally as two separate nouns in apposition in "my cousin Sally's cookies." And you can legitimately do so, so that example doesn't work. I should have cribbed "our John's car" from oerkelens in the first place. – David K Jun 12 '15 at 12:42
  • Yes, if I were forced to parse that as English, that's how I would do it. However, the entire point of my question is why is it wrong to have both our and today's modify meeting. I am not asking whether it is wrong, really, I was fairly certain it was. The thrust of this question is on the why it is wrong. Oerkelens's answer (and its comments thread) and Tanner's address this very nicely. – terdon Jun 12 '15 at 12:43
  • @terdon Thanks for the reminder that I had not yet upvoted oerkelens and Tanner Swett. Done. (Yes, their answers are better than mine.) – David K Jun 12 '15 at 12:53
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    I liked your answer the best. :) Perhaps one can parse your example as: "our [today's meeting]", where it has the meaning of: There is a meeting, and that meeting is one of ours, and that meeting is being held today--it is a [today's meeting], not your [today's meeting], but our [today's meeting]. Perhaps somewhat related could be: "Suzy was a tomboy, but her parents bought her a girl's bike for her birthday. Her favorite uncle bought her a boy's bike, and so, now Suzy has two new bikes. But Suzy, being a tomboy, only rides her boy's bike." – F.E. Jun 12 '15 at 21:06
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    @F.E. Very nice example with Suzy's bikes. Relating it to Tanner Swett's answer, it seems that sometimes a noun in genitive form (boy's in this case) is not a determiner after all, since when Suzy's uncle gave her "a boy's bike," it wasn't a bike formerly belonging to "a boy." – David K Jun 12 '15 at 22:27
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    @F.E. you could also say: Suzy only rides her uncle's bike. (once you've established the context and it's clear who the real owner is. Likewise Suzy might not have her own bike and borrows her uncle's. – Mari-Lou A Jun 13 '15 at 05:09
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    @Mari-LouA Ah, but your example is usually parsed as: "Suzy only rides [her uncle's] bike" (with the meaning of: the bike of her uncle's), where the determiner is "her uncle's" and the nominal is "bike", where the template is "Det + X". In the Suzy example, the parsing is different: "But Suzy, being a tomboy, only rides her [boy's bike]", where the determiner is "her" and the nominal is "boy's bike"--and within that nominal, "boy's" is an attributive modifier of the noun "bike"; in other words, "her [boy's bike]" is parsed similar to "her [red bike]". – F.E. Jun 13 '15 at 06:04
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    Usually, yes. But with the established context it would be clearer: Suzi has two bikes, one from her parents and one from her uncle i.e the "boy bike". She could conceivably call her "boy's bike" her "uncle's bike" to differentiate it from that of her "parents' ". No? – Mari-Lou A Jun 13 '15 at 06:09
  • @F.E. Anyway, what think you of this example? Would you classify it as being ungrammatical, or "clumsy-sounding"? – Mari-Lou A Jun 13 '15 at 06:15
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    @Mari-LouA That might seem logical, but it wouldn't usually be interpreted that way by the hearer. It might be possible to explain to the hearer that that is what Suzy means when she says "her uncle's bike"--that it is the bike her uncle gave her--but it would be a non-standard way of interpreting that expression. But a "boy's bike" can also be a type of bike: the type that boy's ride with a straight bar for the saddle--compared against a girl's bike which has a low bent in that saddle bar. The genitive "boy's" happens to be an attributive modifier in "boy's bike", not a determiner. – F.E. Jun 13 '15 at 06:16
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    @Mari-LouA *Have you got my today's paper?* <== In that context (with speakers who accept "have you got"), then, that sentence seems reasonable to me. Also, your opinion on "Have you got my paper today?" as having a different meaning also seems reasonable to me too. – F.E. Jun 13 '15 at 06:22
  • @DavidK Yes, that is right. (But be aware that genitives have more uses than just to show possession.) And that is why I liked your answer the best. A noun phrase can have more than one genitive in it (though, a noun phrase can only have at most one determiner--where "determiner" is a function in NP structure). – F.E. Jun 13 '15 at 07:14
  • @F.E. Yes, but in modern (British, at least) English a genitive NP attributive modifier must be interpreted as indefinite. We can't use definite ones, it seems. We can't have a "Liverpool's fan" for example :) But it might be different in some forms of US English it seems to me. – Araucaria - Him Jun 13 '15 at 13:31
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    @Mari-LouA personally, I do find it clumsy. It's not something I'd say, I would probably go for do you have my paper or do you my copy of today's paper or some other weaselly squirming to avoid the issue. I think the only reason it sounds OK to you is that today's paper is a set phrase and you're used to hearing it, making it easy for you to parse it as a noun-phrase. Would you also accept have you done your today's chores? – terdon Jun 13 '15 at 17:08
  • @Araucaria we can have a Liverpool's fan if that is the fan who happens to live in Liverpool as opposed to a fan of Liverpool. – terdon Jun 13 '15 at 17:08
  • @terdon Sure you can have "Liverpool's fan" but you can't have "a Liverpool's fan"! – Araucaria - Him Jun 13 '15 at 17:23
  • @Araucaria So, what is your favorite restaurant's today's special? My favorite restaurant's today's special for today is veal and peppers. They tell me that their tomorrow's today's special will be fish and chips. :D – F.E. Jun 13 '15 at 17:34
  • @F.E. Hmmmmmmmmmm ....... Not sure! – Araucaria - Him Jun 13 '15 at 17:37
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    @F.E. they also ask "how may I service you", I don't think we should be taking our cues from that industry. – terdon Jun 13 '15 at 17:38
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    @Araucaria Looking at "their tomorrow's today's special", it seems to kinda offer two parses; but I've been leaning for the parse that parallels "their [Friday's today's special]" where the determiner function is realized by "their", instead of "[[their Friday]'s] today's special" where the determiner is "their Friday's". Hopefully an answer post will address this issue, of genitives that are functioning as determiners vs genitives that are functioning as attributive modifiers, and also why deictic temporal pronouns might be making things tougher. :) – F.E. Jun 13 '15 at 18:00
  • @terdon "Do have my copy of today's paper?" is perfectly fine, but I would use that request when I'm at the newsagent's. S/he is the person who reserves a copy of my newspaper. – Mari-Lou A Jun 13 '15 at 18:32
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I agree with oerkelens' answer, but I am surprised no one has mentioned that the expected form, at least in British English, would normally be "our meeting today". For example, "We welcome Professor David Morrison to our meeting today." While I think most of the grammatical arguments are valid, the main reason I sense "our today's meeting" to be wrong is that a native speaker wouldn't say it: the correct idiom is "our meeting today", at least in most contexts.

  • But we welcome him to our meeting today is ambiguous: it can be parsed as today, we welcome him to our meeting. The result is the same, but the meaning is (slightly) different. – oerkelens Jun 10 '15 at 20:13
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    This is also the preferred form in StdAmEng. – zwol Jun 10 '15 at 21:48
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    Of course it is. The issue here is why, exactly, is our today's meeting wrong. We all know what the idiomatic phrase is, most of us here have a basic grasp of English :) – terdon Jun 10 '15 at 22:25
  • @philgardner: I think there's no such thing as "the expected form", as you say in your answer. There can be one backed by grammar.Your "sense'" that it's wrong is based on your personal view that "a native speaker wouldn't say it". Such statements do not provide answers. – Sankarane Jun 13 '15 at 22:21
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As an alumnus of the Haberdashers' Aske's School, I say with some certainty, there is no rule that you can't have two possessives before a noun.

But why is this OK and "our today's meeting" not? In this case, the possessives qualify in a chain - Robert Aske was a freeman of the Worshipful Company of Haberdashers, thus "Haberdashers' Aske", and the school was named for his bequest, thus {Haberdashers' Aske}'s School.

In "our today's meeting", both possessives qualify "meeting" and this is what is not OK.


Of course, it's trivial to make a chain of possessives. Bob's mother's dog's puppy's teeth have come through.

Joe P
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Simple: you don't own today.

The normal phrase is "our meeting today".

However, note: "All our yesterdays" is legitimate, but poetical and I can imagine a similarly flowery use of "our today" or even "our todays" but stretching that even further to have that today then possess the meeting just doesn't look like it would ever work to me.

Nagora
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    All our yesterdays has nothing to do with this. That's a plural, not a possessive. You would need to compare to all our yesterday's thoughts for example. – terdon Jun 11 '15 at 11:49
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I'm by no means a language expert, but when I look at "our today's meeting", I feel it's wrong because of where time-qualifying words should go. In English, they always go after the verb (I went to the shop yesterday), while in my native German, and other Germanic languages (and probably other languages too) they come before the verb (I went yesterday to the shop...). I think you call that rule "time-manner-place". Here is a useful link! http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time%E2%80%93manner%E2%80%93place

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    Sorry, but that's just wrong. Yesterday, I went to the shop, is perfectly correct. As is Today it rained; yesterday it didn't. – terdon Jun 11 '15 at 15:56
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    "I went yesterday to the shop" is also entirely correct in English, just a bit odd. – Matthew Read Jun 11 '15 at 17:51