Resulted in "him" or "his" losing the job?

Asked Jun 17 '15 at 13:49

Active Jun 17 '15 at 13:56

Viewed 721 times

In the following sentence,

Shortly thereafter he had a car accident which resulted in him losing the job.

My supervisor wanted to change him to his saying something about gerunds. I disagreed and proved it to her by showing her a GrammarCheck I had done on the sentence. She didn't like it but she let it go.

Isn't using him correct in that sentence?

edited Jun 17 '15 at 13:56

Dan Bron

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asked Jun 17 '15 at 13:49

Claire

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possible duplicate of When is a gerund supposed to be preceded by a possessive pronoun? Also Possessive + gerund + object pronoun, Usage of the gerund preceded by the possessive pronoun, and doubtless many more. – FumbleFingers Jun 17 '15 at 13:55
It's certainly grammatical to use him here, and possibly preferable in conveying that losing the job happened to him rather than being an outcome that was effected by him. That said, if your supervisor is willing to let it go, take it silently as a win for your point of view. – hardmath Jun 17 '15 at 14:24

Resulted in "him" or "his" losing the job?

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