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I would really resent him doing this project.

I would really resent his doing this project.

What I suspect is that the difference between in these sentences is that the emphasis is put upon the action of "doing this project" in the first sentence and the emphasis is put upon the subject of "doing this project.Am I right?

Secondly, how can we know in which part the emphasis is put when we come across a sentence in which a pronoun is not used?

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Cihangir Çam
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1 Answers1

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I think your hypothesis would not be borne out by the facts.

Some native speakers say "him doing" and others say "his doing". You're not likely to find the same native speaker switching between forms, for varied emphasis.

Those who say "his doing" were probably taught in school that the possessive pronoun is the correct form, so this form is more frequently used by people with a higher educational level. You will find it most often in formal writing.

TimR
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  • In the linked question offered by @fumblefingers, Barrie England disagrees (and it takes a brave grammarian to disagree with Barrie). – bib Jun 25 '15 at 11:55
  • @bib: The objection raised by FumbleFingers there is spot-on, though one might quibble with his "consciously". If one surveyed thousands of native speakers, one would find that overwhelmingly they opt for the one or the other, and do not switch between them for emphasis, though they might "correct" their written work when they remember the "rule" they had been taught in school. – TimR Jun 25 '15 at 12:02
  • I use both forms myself, so it's certainly possible I might switch between them within a single conversation, but I agree there's no concept of *me/my* doing this for the sake of some supposed "emphasis". The only distinction I normally make is that the possessive form is more "traditional", so I'm significantly more likely to use that in formal written contexts. Nohat's answer on the "original" question has three times as many upvotes as Barrie's (which he himself admits is only "perhaps worth adding"), and Nohat recognises no difference in "nuance" - only "formality". – FumbleFingers Jun 25 '15 at 12:03
  • I think you are probably right, but I can appreciate the idea of a distinction offered by the OP. And I think @fumblefingers is right that the link offered is a good exposition of the issue. And on occasion I have disagreed with Barrie, but always think twice before saying so. – bib Jun 25 '15 at 12:06
  • @bib: If ideas were horses... – TimR Jun 25 '15 at 12:13