The syntax of "come to assume"

Question

I have come to assume that....
I have come to believe that...

How would you parse this. Is "come to" a phrasal modal?

Possible duplicate http://english.stackexchange.com/q/70420/105642 — anemone, Nov 18 '15 at 18:34

score 2 · Answer 1 · answered Nov 18 '15 at 17:21

2

Yes, there is a phrasal modal in that sentence, but it starts with "have":

I have come to assume that...

The phrasal modal "have come to" precedes the infinitive base form of the verb "assume" (or "believe").

answered Nov 18 '15 at 17:21

Nonnal

... and what does it mean exactly? – William Nov 18 '15 at 17:22
1

The speaker is describing the transition from a state in which the speaker did not assume/believe something, to a state in which the speaker does assume/believe something. For example, "After seeing how hens are treated on traditional farms, I have come to believe that it's important to buy cage free eggs." The "come to believe" part helps the listener understand that the speaker had either no opinion or the opposite opinion in the past, but beliefs something specific/different now. – Nonnal Nov 18 '15 at 17:26

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