1

Is it grammatically right if I use two predicates without using a conjunction to link them? There are many sentences using this structure when I read a composition.

Examples:

  • He became a teacher, established his own family twenty years later.

  • I saw nothing decent in him, saw nothing more than a selfish man.

Usage of conjunction: http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/conjunctions.htm

July
  • 55
  • Your translator's phrase is grammatical; yours is not. Please explain what research led you to your conclusion. – Tim Lymington Dec 28 '15 at 15:24
  • Do you use i in your translation? Just a heads-up. You received 3 close-votes and if you don't edit your question with your research/reference, your question will be closed with 2 more votes. I believe you visited our help center but you don't seem to understand the rules here. A request for proof-reading or a question without any research is off-topic. –  Dec 28 '15 at 15:48
  • 3
    <<He became a teacher; established his own family twenty years later.>> is an example of subject deletion, which is often considered acceptable in non-formal registers. <> uses a sentence fragment to give a terse style, but this again would be avoided in formal registers. With the comma, there is a comma splice, and in these cases the sentences would more often be considered non-standard. – Edwin Ashworth Dec 28 '15 at 19:11

0 Answers0