Why is the k silent in: known /nəʊn/; knife /nʌɪf/, and knight /nʌɪt/?
What does this specify?And what is k doing there if there is no need to pronounce it?
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6See related threads here, here, and here. – Kyle Dec 31 '15 at 09:00
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It used to be pronounced, like the 'gh' in 'night', or the silent 'e' at the end of half the words in English. The British are lazier in pronouncing than they are in spelling. – Mitch Dec 31 '15 at 15:39
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That silent k, at one point in the history of English, didn't used to be silent. Anglo-Saxon (Old English) did in fact pronounce the k. A trait that still exists in most other modern Germanic languages, i.e. Dutch, Frisian, Danish, German etc. However, somewhere down the road in the evolution of English, the k sound had for some reason dropped but the spelling had petrified. Long story short, it's significance is historical rather than practical.
TCYK
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The parallel to knight is German Knecht. In German the k is still pronounced. So the k in knight has a historical basis. And "night" and "knight" are differentiated in spelling.
rogermue
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