3rd conditional + inversion

Question

So I know that the following sentence is correct: "Had I known about that, I wouldn't have talked to her."

However is this one correct too? "I wouldn't have talked to her had I known about that."

Edit: I specifically mean using the inverted form in the second part of the sentence. I spoke to my English teacher about this and she insisted that the inversion can only be used at the start of the conditional sentence. That's where my question comes from.

It is grammatical and carries the same meaning as your earlier sentence. — Lawrence, Jan 25 '16 at 08:57
Related question, The use of "were- should- had” at the beginning of sentences instead of “if” and Conditional sentence without conditional conjunctions, is that possible?. If you click on the second question, you will see many duplicates of your question. — , Jan 25 '16 at 09:38

score 0 · Answer 1 · answered Feb 03 '16 at 11:53

Either version is correct, and they both have the same meaning. The only difference is on the emphasis that you are putting on the two halves.

You can test this by putting an explicit "if" without the inversion:

I wouldn't have talked to her if I had known about that

If I had known about that I wouldn't have talked to her

3rd conditional + inversion

1 Answers1