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Imagine that you are very experienced person, like Dorian Gray. You are tired of life, there is nothing new for you. And you are saying: "I’ve tried everything, and everything has bored". Is has bored correct?

madeinbarabinsk
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Yes, but it's plausibly confusing as the mind's eye will tend towards reading 'bored' as an adjective rather than a verb, since the adjective usage is the most common. It's usually better to avoid such confusions unless you intended to cause them for a specific reason.

Peter David Carter
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    And adjectives are not normally complement to "has", plus inanimate objects don't get bored. Either ... and everything has bored me or ...and everything is boring would be okay. – BillJ Apr 14 '16 at 11:30
  • Perhaps in this case then we mean 'bored' in its hitherto non-dictionary recognised nounal form. Though also I would note that something can be both noun and adjective at the same time; that is: a condition of being is also a condition of describing, after a fashion. Regarding "everything" as an 'inanimate' object I think we are getting into the realms of theological speculation, which I would almost be tempted to call off-topic, except that "[i]n the beginning was the Word..." – Peter David Carter Apr 14 '16 at 11:35
  • You missed my points completely. "Bored" is not a noun in present-day English, so forget that. I cited "bored" as an adjective in the improbable meaning of 'an inanimate object being bored'. And I'm well aware that some words can be both nouns and adjectives, but "bored" isn't one of them. – BillJ Apr 14 '16 at 11:42
  • And why would the mind's eye tend towards reading "bored" as an adjective"? It might do, but I think one would expect either a past participle after the perfect auxiliary "has", or possibly a noun if "bored" is being used transitively. – BillJ Apr 14 '16 at 11:47
  • You're misunderstanding my points of philosophy, BillJ. In a sense a noun is always an adjective, as it is impossible to fully unlock the one from the other. A thing can be evoked in a more 'thing like' or 'describing like' sense, but the one is always partially the other in any given situation. The car may be perceived to be red, but being red is also part of the condition of being a '"red car"', or at least plausibly so (again there are differing opinions). Though I understand why you're getting confused BillJ. These can be difficult understandings for people to get their heads around. – Peter David Carter Apr 14 '16 at 11:52
  • You may with to read the work of post-structuralist linguists regarding these points as you would probably find their work most illuminating. – Peter David Carter Apr 14 '16 at 11:53
  • I'm not in the least bit confused, The OP clearly expected an answer based on the grammar of their example, not a philosophical answer based on the mish-mash suggested by post-structuralist linguists. – BillJ Apr 14 '16 at 11:56
  • Mish-mash pish-posh. My answer was based on commonality of understanding. We're talking about the implications for addresser and addressee here, not some overly abstraction-happy schoolboy's textbook grammar lessons giving them ideas above their station. – Peter David Carter Apr 14 '16 at 11:57
  • Well then, address the OP's concern with an answer based on modern-day general-purpose descriptive grammar (if you are able to, that is) – BillJ Apr 14 '16 at 12:00
  • I already did. Didn't you understand the answer BillJ? – Peter David Carter Apr 14 '16 at 12:04
  • Yet the answer accounted for expectation. Perhaps you have a different definition of 'correctness'. If so I would be interested to hear which definition you are currently using and to what purpose. – Peter David Carter Apr 14 '16 at 12:10
  • So, tell us all what is wrong, if anything, with the use of the word "bored" in the OP's example, which is all they wanted know. If you see "has bored" as a straightforward perfect construction with an ellipted NP complement, i.e. has bored (me), just say so. I'd go along with that. – BillJ Apr 14 '16 at 12:15
  • Yet what if one "has bored" in a more general or difficult to define sense. In this case "has bored me" would be incorrect usage, no? – Peter David Carter Apr 14 '16 at 13:44
  • Tell me please, maybe I can say "I've tried everything and everything has got me bored" instead? –  madeinbarabinsk Apr 15 '16 at 01:48
  • 'Has got' is an incorrect formulation though, as there is some tense confusion between the 3rd person present 'has' and the past participal 'got'. Also, we have a similar problem to before, in that 'me' is the focus, where as 'has bored' could plausibly refer to multiple persons, beings, or parties hitherto unspecified. – Peter David Carter Apr 15 '16 at 05:04
  • Ok. Well, in this case, is there any correct variant of this phrase that ends with "bored"? Thank you! –  madeinbarabinsk Apr 15 '16 at 06:12
  • I suppose you're probably better off being as specific as possible, so things like 'we started a fire for the simple reason we were absurdly, unimaginably, unendurably bored' would be correct. Well, maybe not the fire starting part ;). – Peter David Carter Apr 15 '16 at 06:21