Is the use of "be used to" correct in the following context?

Question

I would like to have an explanation on the use of the structure Be used to. I've always thought that It refers to habitual actions in the present. But a native speaker marked this sentence of mine as a mistake, "It is a pillow developed for sleeping on a plane for those who are used to travelling frequently" and put instead, "..for those who are use to travelling..."

I've never seen this structure Be use to (without the d at the end of "use") before and it does not sound correct to me at all. But I surprisingly found it used very frequently on the internet. So I just don't understand.

They were wrong. You were correct when you wrote "used". Here's a linklink — BillJ, Sep 16 '16 at 16:02
See kiamlaluno's earlier answer. Many (most?) pronounce used to and use to in the same way, so when written there is a temptation to hypercorrect. The same phenomenon occurs with supposed to. Another common error is could of for could've. Related: What's the negation of “I used to be”? and What is the question form of “used to do”? — choster, Sep 16 '16 at 16:05
There are two different "used to" idioms, both pronounced /justu/. One is a predicate adjective and means 'accustomed to' (I'm used to this car now). It requires an auxiliary be verb. The other is the complex past habitual construction. — John Lawler, Sep 16 '16 at 20:12

score 1 · Answer 1 · answered Sep 21 '16 at 08:47

Your usage of "be used to" was correct. But it's not exclusively used to "refers to habitual actions in the present." You can use "be used to" in any tense. For example:

When we lived in Bangkok, we were used to hot weather.

I have been used to snakes for a long time.

You will soon be used to living alone.

Is the use of "be used to" correct in the following context?

1 Answers1