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The phrase "Most of it's in English" is grammatically correct (it's short for "Most of it is in English"), but it doesn't feel right. Is there a reason it doesn't feel right?

Edit: The thing I'm concerned about is "it's" versus "it is".

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Golden Cuy
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    This may be a better question to ask in [chat]. How it feels to you may be different than how it feels to others. – MrHen Jul 25 '11 at 02:36
  • @MrHen: Not sure why the fact that different people may feel differently about a usage means it's not valid for OP to ask about it. Seems just as on-topic to me as, for example, "How offensive is 'cock-up' to Americans"? – FumbleFingers Jul 25 '11 at 04:20
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    Perhaps the question about "That's what it's" is relevant (that question is also about "it is" versus "it's"). Or perhaps not. – ShreevatsaR Jul 25 '11 at 05:26
  • @ShreevatsaR: It's. (Relevant, that is) – Golden Cuy Jul 25 '11 at 06:30
  • @ShreevatsaR: That would be more relevant if we were discussing "Most of it's" as a possible reply to "Is it in English?". But we're not. – FumbleFingers Jul 25 '11 at 11:53
  • @FumbleFingers: Right, I agree. It's not relevant. In fact I think "Most of it's in English" is perfectly fine. – ShreevatsaR Jul 25 '11 at 12:01
  • @ShreevatsaR: You and the rest of the English-speaking world (apart from OP), I suspect! :) – FumbleFingers Jul 25 '11 at 12:30
  • The subject of this phrase is "Most", not "it." There may be a rule against using a weak form of "is" against a word that is not its subject. Someone with a proper grammar text should look it up. – Tobia Dec 28 '14 at 19:58

2 Answers2

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Sure it's right, and it's usual enough. It means, of course, that some communication is in a mix of languages, but that the majority thereof is being communicated in the English language.

Patrick87
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Perhaps the reason it doesn't feel right is because even in the 'contracted' form it has four repetitions of the short "i" sound.

Personally I find the full form (with five repetitions) quite difficult to say quickly.

FumbleFingers
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