-1
  1. I had paid my bill.
  2. I paid my bill.

I just want to make sure that the first sentence is correct. I understand that the second sentence is called simple past. If I use had as in the first sentence, is it still called past perfect tense? Or that is wrong English since there is no other action mentioned (e.g.: I had paid my bill before going home).

And with regards to the second sentence, is it correct to use simple past form like that even if no specific time was mentioned?

Thanks!

user1764381
  • 169

1 Answers1

1

It's still past perfect tense. The action is "pay" here basically with bill as object and "I" as subject.

Yes to the last question as well.

And just a tip - in English, until your gut instinct tells you it's wrong and you feel wrong using the sentence, it's probably correct.

Sahil Agarwal
  • 119