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In what case and why is letter 'o' pronounced as 'ʌ' like in the word 'cut' /kʌt/?

  • Done is pronounced /dʌn/ while other words of the kind are pronounced differently: lone, bone, tone.

Why is gone pronounced /ɡɒn/?

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    What do you mean for "Luke"? It is pronounced as /luːk/, with the same vowel as duke and nuke (all 3 words rhyme). Are you referring to the absence of the palatal glide /j/, which most British English speakers have in /djuːk/ and /njuːk/? – herisson Nov 24 '16 at 07:49
  • @sumelic Exactly. It should be /ljuːk/ then. – SovereignSun Nov 24 '16 at 08:02
  • Formerly, people did say /ljuːk/. What happened is that /ljuː/ in stressed syllables has tended to be simplified to /luː/. In American English, this kind of simplification is more extensive: for example, I would pronounce these words /luːk/, /duːk/, /nuːk/ with no /j/ in any of them. – herisson Nov 24 '16 at 08:13
  • @sumelic What about the word puke then? It reads /pjuːk/ in both Am.E and Br.E. – SovereignSun Nov 24 '16 at 08:18
  • Yes, whether it is /juː/ or /uː/ depends on the preceding consonant. There is a general summary of how to pronounce "long u" in stressed syllables here: When to pronounce long u as “yoo” or “ooo” – herisson Nov 24 '16 at 08:22
  • @Rathony The best I could do to edit my question. I see it as one compound question that concerns one topic. – SovereignSun Nov 24 '16 at 09:29
  • @SovereignSun You can delete the first question as it is a duplicate of this question Is “haphazard” a unique word?. You can delete the third question and ask it using another post. Focus on the second question (done, lone, bone and tone) and include some research. –  Nov 24 '16 at 09:39
  • @Rathony But I have no research. – SovereignSun Nov 24 '16 at 09:47
  • @Rathony and the first question is definitely not a duplicate of what you've given. – SovereignSun Nov 24 '16 at 09:49
  • @Rathony I can't understand why you say that they are different when they all concern spelling and pronunciation? I did copy from dictionary only it was /dʌn/ not [dʌn] – SovereignSun Nov 24 '16 at 09:53
  • I have edited your question. Please review it. Your third question could be distraction (as the first comment shows) and you need to ask it separately. One question per post is the guideline and please keep this in mind. –  Nov 24 '16 at 10:01
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    @Rathony Thanks Sir. I'll ask about 'Luke' later. – SovereignSun Nov 24 '16 at 10:06
  • @sumelic Thank you. I will definitely explore your question. – SovereignSun Nov 24 '16 at 14:06
  • There is a common fallacy about the English language that is the source of many questions here. It is somewhat similar to the Etymological Fallacy, but so far as I know does not have a name. I would propose calling it the Spelling Fallacy. – Hot Licks Nov 24 '16 at 17:46
  • Yes, it's taught to all students in Anglophone classrooms. It consists of the belief that the spellings are fixed and certain, and that the pronunciations are of no importance because they're determined by the spelling, which is the important thing. So important, in fact, that there is a popular sport in the USA where children compete to spell words. Of course this is silly. The sounds are the language and the spelling is just arbitrarily splattered printing history, with no relation to the modern language. – John Lawler Sep 02 '19 at 00:10

2 Answers2

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Why is gone spelled the same way as lone, when it's pronounced differently?

Because when English spelling was fixed, they were pronounced the same.

In Middle English, there was no fixed spelling of words. The spelling became fixed shortly after Shakespeare wrote.

Shakespeare treats the following words as if they all rhyme in his poems and sonnets:

alone,
anon,
bone,
gone,
groan,
loan,
moan,
on,
one,
prone,
stone.

The same sound change that affected on and gone seems to have also affected shone; it rhymes with gone in the U.K. and lone in the U.S.

On the other hand, this explanation doesn't work for the word done. The only rhymes Shakespeare has for done is sun (which he uses several times), begun, and run. One reason for the spelling of done might be to show the relation with the root word is do. Another reason might be that "u" and "n" are both letters composed of "minims" in Middle English script, and Middle English scribes sometimes replaced "u" with "o" in such words so they would be more readable. See this question.

Peter Shor
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English is a mixing pot of other languages.

They have words from Latin, French, Dutch and many other langauges.

This is partially because of England's history of being conquered. Th influx of emmigrants also influenced the language.

The Norman invasion of England gave the english langauge words like beef (from the French word for cow), pork (from the French word for pig) and mutton (from the French word for sheep).

(Ivanhoe has a comical explanation of this in its first chapter.)

Dutch immigrants gave the English language many of its kn words, infact reading Chaucer's old english is much easier with a knowledge of the Dutch langauge.

(i.e. Chaucer's use of eek meaning also is a derivitave of the Dutch ook meaning the same thing.)

The Roman invasion will have contributed Latin words as did the fact that the langauge of Catholic bibles etc. was Latin.

Botanical names are in Latin to this day. Many scientific words and terms have different pronounciations because they have latin and greek origins.

Words starting or having a ph in them are often scientific and have Greek origins. (Thanks to comments.)

The invasion by the Norse has influenced the English langauge as well and this can be heard especially is some Northern England dialects.

Mirte
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    Actually, 'ph' words are derived from the Greek (beginning with the letter 'phi'). – Kate Bunting Nov 24 '16 at 09:42
  • Please read the edited question. Sorry for the inconvenience. –  Nov 24 '16 at 10:01
  • Words that start with "kn" have no special link to Dutch immigrants in general (I don't know, a few of them might be borrowed). The reason these words often are similar to Dutch words is the common Germanic ancestry of English and Dutch. Also "eek" is not from Dutch "ook," rather they are cognates, which means both descend from the parent language that came before English and Dutch and is ancestor to both (Proto-Germanic, basically). – herisson Nov 24 '16 at 14:03