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Jerry is neither rich nor famous. I know this is correct. Is this correct? Jerry isn't rich nor famous. It doesn't sound natural to me, but I can't find a reason why it wouldn't be right.

Ashley
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  • @p.s.w.g I think the OP is asking — "Can you use 'nor' after 'not'?" rather than "Should I use 'nor' after 'neither'?". Would be good to clarify alright though. – anotherdave Mar 02 '17 at 16:48
  • Better: Jimmy isn't (either) rich or famous. Although either may be omitted, it's understood. – Ronald Sole Mar 02 '17 at 16:53

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Yes, it is correct.

If you didn't omit the verb/subject in the second half of the sentence, you would reverse them, and say:

Jerry isn't rich, nor is he famous

But keeping the omission is also fine, for example:

Still Peter was not rich nor famous, he was neither a ruler of the synagogue, nor an eminent scribe

— The Complete Works of C. H. Spurgeon, Volume 23: Sermons 1331-1390

That said, it definitely does sound more formal (and a little old-fashioned perhaps), versus using 'or'.

anotherdave
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  • Older writers, even through the nineteenth century, were more liberal about usage of nor than today's. Ralph Waldo Emerson, for example, wrote, "All great men have written proudly nor cared to explain" (link too long to include, but it comes up on a Google search); modern grammar requires and not or but not instead of nor. – Connor Harris Mar 02 '17 at 19:01