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The sentence is:

One of the limitations of liberalization is that it increases the vulnerability of (a/the/no article) domestic market to foreign shocks.

Am I free to use either 'the', 'a', or no article in this sentence? If one is better than the others, please explain why.

And is 'domestic market' together a noun or only 'domestic' is a noun?

herisson
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user227275
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1 Answers1

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One of the limitations of liberalization is that it increases the vulnerability of the domestic market to foreign shocks.

Domestic is an adjective.

Market is a noun.

Ricky
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    Can I take liberties to use 'a' or no article ? Why only 'the' is used here ? – user227275 Mar 28 '17 at 02:44
  • You could, but it would sound awkward. – Ricky Mar 28 '17 at 05:27
  • @user227275: Most likely your cited example is talking about one particular domestic market. If it's a more general statement about the effects of "liberalization" in different markets across the world, the indefinite article could feasibly be used "naturally" (the vulnerability of a* domestic market), but in that context most writers would simply pluralise markets* anyway. Also note that singular with the definite article could feasibly be used even in that "general" case (referencing *any one,* treated as *the one from whose perspective all other markets are "foreign"*). – FumbleFingers Mar 28 '17 at 16:59