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This is either a spelling or a pronunciation anomaly; I'm not sure which. Why is "eye" pronounced as the letter "I"?

tchrist
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Daniel
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2 Answers2

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Looking at the Etymonline entry:

c.1200, from O.E. ege (Mercian), eage (W. Saxon), from P.Gmc. *augon

the g in Old English ege would be the voiced velar fricative /ɣ/. This sound does not exist in modern English as it was palatalised to /ʝ/ and later became /j/, which we usually write with y.

Daniel
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z7sg Ѫ
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  • I thought palatalization of velars was reconstructed as a pre–, not post–Old English sound change. What I remembar reading is that the reflexes of Proto-Germanic velars in palatalizing contexts were written with g and c in Old English, but pronounced as [j], [tʃ] (or when geminated, written cg or gg and cc and pronounced as [dːʒ], [tːʃ]). – herisson Mar 10 '18 at 05:20
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Both spelling and pronunciation are reasonably regular. The word is from Mercian ēge [e:ɣe] (West Saxon ēage). In Middle English the [ɣ] became [j], and the combination [e:j] developed into the diphthong [eɪ]. In later Middle English this diphthong was monophthongized to [i:], which developed into modern [aɪ] in the course of the Great Vowel Shift. The later Middle English pronunciation can be seen in such spellings as igh(e), ihe, and ie; the modern spelling, however, represents the earlier Middle English pronunciation.