Is it allowed to set the noun after the verb?
An example from Wikipedia where this is used:
Here Comes Trouble (Scatterbrain album)
and I've also noticed this in some films and texts.
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Related: “Here he comes”, “Here comes he” : The order of pronoun and verb in inversion – herisson Oct 21 '17 at 22:43
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2Answered at "Here he comes", "Here comes he" : The order of pronoun and verb in inversion (see Araucaria's answer). – Edwin Ashworth Oct 21 '17 at 22:59
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Also related, although less closely: What kind of inversion is this? “Out come the pocket calculators” – herisson Oct 21 '17 at 23:06
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Verbs don't usually come at the end of a sentence, instead they are placed between a subject and its direct object (if any). This subject-verb-object pattern (SVO) is a feature of English which it has in common with Spanish, French, to a certain extent Chinese among others. Languages such as Hindi, German, Latin and others by contrast have the pattern SOV as their preferred or fundamental word order.
The verb only comes last in cases where there are no other words in the sentence. For example "Fire burns" is a good, simple sentence, but if you add on to the sentence you place the new words after the verb ("Fire burns brightly," "Fire burns buildings," "Fire burns until there is no more fuel available," etc.). "Trouble comes here" or "Here comes trouble" are both acceptable, only "trouble here comes" sounds truly incorrect to my ears.
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'Here he comes' is grammatical, unlike 'Here comes he'. This sort of inversion has been discussed before on ELU. – Edwin Ashworth Oct 21 '17 at 23:09
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Have you got an example of when German usesv SOV? SVO is entirely common in German. OVS is also possible. I can't think of a SOV example (but I'm not a native German speaker). – The Photon Oct 22 '17 at 01:36