For example, in the sentence
I went to town and did some shopping.
Can we safely assume this means I went to town in order to do some shopping?
In other words, did the person go to town in order to go shopping or is that unknown?
For example, in the sentence
I went to town and did some shopping.
Can we safely assume this means I went to town in order to do some shopping?
In other words, did the person go to town in order to go shopping or is that unknown?
They do not mean the same thing.
I went to town to do some shopping.
This means that I went to town for the purpose of shopping.
I went to town and did some shopping.
I went to town. I did some shopping. I may or may not have done the shopping while I was in town, and shopping may or may not be the reason I went to town, but this sentence does not specify whether either is the case.
The phrase "go [somewhere] and [do something]" is very common in English. It does imply that the "something" came after the going.
But in answer to your specific question, I would say No, it does not necessarily mean that the shopping was the purpose of going to town.
In this case, it quite likely does mean that, but that is because of the circumstances, not the construction. "I went home and watched television" does not imply that the watching was the purpose of going home.
Using and kind of implies that shopping was not your essential objective of going to the town. However, usage of to implies that the objective of your visit to the town was shopping.
and does create a doubt as to shopping being the main objective and this is what I am exploiting.
– check123
Sep 20 '11 at 16:47
Yes, yes it does, but not always.
On its own, it has the meaning you have identified, but is ambiguous. Depending on the context, the only connection might be that the shopping happened after going into to town (e.g. "I went into town and did some shopping. The shopping was at the out of town shopping centre.").