-2

I am confused between the texts below. Please help me with the correct one.

  • Tasks for John and I have been created
  • Tasks for John and me have been created
  • Tasks for John and myself have been created
Chandan Gupta
  • 1

1 Answers1

0

I will explain this to you in a simple way.

In this context, you and John have not created the tasks; but the tasks have been created for John and you.

Try to view the sentence in this way: tasks have been created for John and me. We can do this because tasks have been created for John and me and tasks for John and me have been created are interchangeable.

So the correct sentence is,

Tasks for John and me have been created.

  • Thanks, @QuartzX. What if I have created the tasks and reporting it to my manager? Does it still stand correct? – Chandan Gupta Feb 01 '18 at 13:10
  • If you're the one creating the tasks, grammatically, the tasks are not being created for you; therefore, you can no longer use "me" and you will have to use "I". –  Feb 01 '18 at 13:15
  • You would have to say, "I have created tasks and am reporting them to my manager." –  Feb 01 '18 at 13:17
  • The first thing to try with a 'name and I/me' or similar question is to remove 'name and'. Test both versions, preferably say them aloud. Even those learning English usually know which sounds right. – Ross Murray Feb 01 '18 at 13:52
  • I'd write it as you did (Tasks have been created for ...) but I presume the question is some sort of multiple-choice test (arguably most of them require a single choice to be made ...). – Will Crawford Feb 01 '18 at 15:05
  • Hello, QuartzX. You can assume that such basic questions will either have been covered, or are considered inappropriate on a site aimed at linguists. Lack of research is usually also diagnostic. – Edwin Ashworth Feb 01 '18 at 17:04
  • There is an simpler test for this, construct the sentence without reference to a second person and then use the same pronoun in the full sentence. Only a few dialect speakers would say "That has been done for I" so why would people do not speak those dialects say "That has been done for John and I"? "The tasks have been created for John and me" is correct. – BoldBen Feb 01 '18 at 20:23
  • Thanks everyone for the answers. @RossMurray, I used the same and found "me" to be more appropriate. Appreciated – Chandan Gupta Feb 02 '18 at 07:31