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Barron's Grammar Workbook (which claims to be written for those wishing to take "the SAT, ACT, and more") says to use a possessive pronoun before a gerund, and gives the following example:

Her asking the question shows that she is alert.

Then it goes on to give two more examples, the second of which is said to contain not a gerund but a participle:

I hope you don't mind my intruding on your conversation.

I hope you don't mind me intruding on your conversation.

The first version conforms to the rule, and I bet the 2nd is fine in speech. But from a pedantic perspective (which the SAT and the GMAT presumably adhere to), is the second version correct? The present participle following a noun (phrase) functions like a relative clause, so what is grammatically being minded in the second version is not the action of intrusion, but the individual referred to by the pronoun "me."

Apollyon
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  • Excellent summation. The phrase beginning with my refers to the act in question, whereas the phrase beginning with me refers to the person in question. Do you mind my intruding? Or, do you mind me intruding? It's a subtle difference, and worth noting. The object in the first example is the act of intruding. In the second one, the object is the person acting. How you phrase it depends on what you wish to focus on as the object of the sentence. – Bread Feb 13 '18 at 12:22
  • The choice of pronoun is what creates (or designates) one phrase a gerund and the other not a gerund. The choice of pronoun therefore subtly changes the meaning of the sentence. So it can be argued that a phrase is not a gerund without the possessive pronoun. From your description, it appears the standard tests take that point into consideration, and I would expect it shouldn't be a problem for anyone taking the tests, as long as they fully understand the difference in phrasing and the intended usage for each. – Bread Feb 13 '18 at 12:42

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