What's the difference between the following
By the 18th century, the Portuguese in India lost their commercial influence.
By the 18th century, the Portuguese in India had lost their commercial influence.
Thank you.
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Policewala
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1By the time the 18th century began, the process of the Portuguese losing their influence had finished. This is different from saying that a certain event happened in the 18th century. – Kate Bunting Mar 24 '18 at 09:15
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That means 1) is wrong? – Policewala Mar 24 '18 at 11:59
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- does not seem natural to me (unless you changed 'by' to 'in', which would slightly change the meaning).
– Kate Bunting Mar 24 '18 at 14:12 -
Why does not @KateBunting post her excellent comment as an answer? – JeremyC Mar 24 '18 at 23:12