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I have searched both Google and this site. According to Collins, predispose can accept both to + infinitive and to + gerund. I find this questionable, but there it is.

Other than that, I can think of approach:
We need a new approach to win customers.
We need a new approach to winning customers.
Actually, in this case, it seems the infinitive works because of "need" and the gerund works because of "approach", so they're not actually saying the same thing.

I have seen on this site that prone does not work both ways, although people do use it both ways. It should only be used with to + gerund.

Are there other words or phrases that can accept to + infinitive and to + gerund equally?

*Note: I am not asking about "to" + infinitive vs. gerund. I am only asking about cases where the word "to" comes before the gerund, and also before the infinitive, and means the same thing. I have not found this question duplicated anywhere.

EDIT: And if the expressions do not always have the same meaning, can they ever have the same meaning?

EDIT: My current list, yea or nay?
well suited to do = well suited to doing
be adapted to do = be adapted to doing
proceed to do = proceed to doing
with a mind to do = with a mind to doing
agree to do = agree to doing
consent to do = consent to doing
donate to do = donate to doing

Chuckk Hubbard
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    I think it is more because **winning customers" is used as a noun phrase in the second sentence. The preceding verbiage has very little if anything to do with it. The two sentences really don't mean exactly the same thing, nor does the preceding verbiage (i.e. approach and predispose) have much if anything to do with the choice of either infinitive or gerund. – Bread Apr 05 '18 at 02:51
  • I see them as quite different. "...to win customers..." is equivalent to "...for winning (by us) new customers...". But the second one ("...new approach to winning customers" could easily mean "we need a new approach for our customers who do considerable business with us". – eSurfsnake Apr 05 '18 at 04:53
  • Well, you can say, "We need a new _____ to win customers," with almost anything, since the infinitive can be used to express intention, e.g. "I went to the store to buy some butter." – Chuckk Hubbard Apr 05 '18 at 07:51
  • @Bread, of course it is a noun phrase, using a gerund. Even so, not all words can be followed by "to" + a noun phrase, and this is dependent on the word. – Chuckk Hubbard Apr 05 '18 at 10:30
  • How about "well adapted"? "It is well adapted to climb..." vs. "It is well adapted to climbing."
    Or "suited"?     – Chuckk Hubbard Apr 05 '18 at 10:58
  • You said: I am only asking about cases where the word "to" comes before the gerund, and also before the infinitive, *and means the same thing.* My point is, they don't mean exactly the same thing. The infinitive is a verbal phrase modifier, whereas the gerund makes it a noun phrase modifier. So, "an approach to [a specific action]" vs. "an approach to [a specific outcome]. – Bread Apr 05 '18 at 11:51
  • @Bread Too true, too true. But would you then differentiate between "like to do" and "like doing"? Or "love to do" and "love doing"? Or "start to do" and "start doing"? As far as I'm concerned, there is no difference in meaning for them that could be used to say one usage is correct or incorrect in a particular situation. – Chuckk Hubbard Apr 06 '18 at 00:09
  • I'm not saying one or the other is correct. It really is just a matter of opinion. There's a difference, in my mind. But nothing that is apparent to most people. To me the difference is between the activity (to win) vs. the situation (winning). Sometimes I prefer the activity, other times I prefer the situation -- yet other times I could toss a coin and still be perfectly content either way. – Bread Apr 06 '18 at 00:25
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    I have long sought any kind of generalized explanation for why some phrases demand infinitive and some gerund, as students ask me this regularly. I've found nothing; you just have to learn each phrase. Is there any conceptual reason why "I enjoy to play football," is incorrect? Or "I demand knowing"? Any key to help people know which one to use generally would be El Dorado's gold for me. – Chuckk Hubbard Apr 06 '18 at 05:02
  • Related (discuss specific possible examples): “Feel committed to {gerund/infinitive}”, To (preposition) + Gerund – herisson Apr 06 '18 at 05:04
  • https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/386451/which-expression-is-correct-ive-already-started-working-on-it-or-ive-alrea/386459#386459 That post by me deals in part with this. – Lambie Jun 28 '18 at 20:56
  • to is not part of the gerund: So, it isn't about taking or not taking to here. The meanings are different. https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/440532/base-verb-or-v-ing – Lambie Jun 28 '18 at 20:58
  • Lambie, I know this. That is not the question. I mean there seem to be some cases where "to" + gerund, with "to" being a preposition, can be used interchangeably with "to" + infinitive, with to as particle. – Chuckk Hubbard Jun 30 '18 at 08:42

1 Answers1

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I think you just need to learn which verbs are typically followed by an infinitive and which more commonly take a gerund.

Here's a list from another site to get you started.

swmcdonnell
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  • One does have to learn them when learning English. That said, some take both and mean different things: I love playing tennis; I love to play tennis. – Lambie Jun 28 '18 at 20:59
  • Thank you, but this is not a site for English learners and I am not learning English. I know them all pretty well and which forms they take, but I have noticed that sometimes "to" can appear in both forms, with different roles. With "a new approach to win" I suspect that the infinitive of intention enters into it. We do something TO DO something else. Even something like "I enjoy to relax," meaning not that I enjoy relaxing, but that I enjoy in order to relax. Weird, but... incorrect? Maybe not. – Chuckk Hubbard Jun 30 '18 at 08:46