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I have studied English extensively, yet I haven't seen various forms of the subjunctive ever, for example the third person singular and the negative form. They sound so wrong in my ears. Are they (the two forms of the subjunctive mentioned above) even used that often, or is it just me? Examples are:

  • It is necessary that he see a doctor (contrasted with the indicative he sees). 
  • I recommend that they not enter the competition

The only ones that make sense to me are these three forms:

  • I suggest that he be removed
  • If he were rich....
  • If I were rich...

For anyone who is wondering, here is a description of the subjunctive-mood, given in Wikipedia:

"The subjunctive in English is used to form sentences that do not describe known objective facts. These include statements about one's state of mind, such as opinion, belief, purpose, intention, or desire"

[Though it must be added for balance that different grammarians use the term 'subjunctive' (as metalanguage in English) in conflicting ways, some grammarians rejecting the term as inapplicable when analysing English.]

Edwin Ashworth
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Stallmp
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    Phrases like "...necessary that he see a doctor"; "recommend that they not enter"; ... are still very much in use in formal writing. OTOH, "... necessary that he sees a doctor" is just plain ungrammatical. Rather, today, you will find a rephrased structure. instead. – Kris May 08 '18 at 07:51
  • Really? "It is necessary that he sees a doctor" sounds normal in my ears. Why is it ungrammatical when using the indicative? How does the meaning change? – Stallmp May 08 '18 at 07:52
  • They both sound good to me. The latter sentence to me though would be better without the relative pronoun. 'I recommend he not enter', sounds better to me. – JDF May 08 '18 at 07:54
  • @Deonyi The relative pronoun is indeed ommited often in informal speech, in contrary to literature. I haven't seen the subjunctive use of this form yet though. – Stallmp May 08 '18 at 07:56
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    @Kris Wrong. Pullum and Huddleston concede that the indicative is acceptable here, though they say their preference is for the 'mandative subjunctive'. This has all been covered here before. – Edwin Ashworth May 08 '18 at 07:57
  • @EdwinAshworth How does the indicative use change the meaning exactly? – Stallmp May 08 '18 at 07:58
  • @Stallmp Of course the relative pronoun is correct, but I was just saying in common speech it's usually omitted in such constructions, especially with the subjunctive. – JDF May 08 '18 at 08:00
  • @Deonyi That is exactly what I said haha, I just confirmed your thoughts to show you a possible explanation why the omission sounds better. – Stallmp May 08 '18 at 08:01
  • @Stallmp Oh, I see. – JDF May 08 '18 at 08:02
  • @EdwinAshworth My question focuses more on the usage of these specific forms, and why they sound weird to my ears (I am not a native speaker). – Stallmp May 08 '18 at 08:03
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    @Stallmp "It is necessary that he sees a doctor", "It is necessary that he see a doctor" and "It is necessary that he should see a doctor" say exactly the same thing. The first would be the most idiomatic of the three in conversation in the UK, while the second is probably the favoured form in the US. In formal writing in the UK, periphrastic should is probably the favoured form. It certainly disambiguates the best (She insisted that I should go to the doctor's). – Edwin Ashworth May 08 '18 at 08:05
  • @EdwinAshworth That is interesting, because the meaning often changes. For example: - I insist that he is here (indicative, a forceful assertion of the fact that he is here) - I insist that he be here (subjunctive, a demand that the condition of his being here be fulfilled) – Stallmp May 08 '18 at 08:07
  • @EdwinAshworth Not really, I am not interested in WHEN you should use the tense. Because I do know that. – Stallmp May 08 '18 at 08:12
  • Really? "I insist that he is here at the meeting" or especially "I insist that he comes to the meeting" would be used far more often in the UK than "I insist that he be here at the meeting" or "I insist that he come to the meeting", even when the meaning is "He'd better be here". Though this is probably not the case in the US. – Edwin Ashworth May 08 '18 at 08:24
  • The subjunctive is not a mood form but a clause type that uses the plain form of the verb ("He insisted that she meet her"). With the subjunctive, it is not a matter of modality, as you suggest, but one of bringing about the situation described in the content clause. Subjunctive clauses invoke the concept of 'compliance": in my example, he insisted on compliance. With only one exception, English expresses modality with the modal auxiliaries. The one exception is the 'irrealis' mood "were", (the ill-named past subjunctive for some), as in "If he were in love with her he'd marry her". – BillJ May 08 '18 at 09:05
  • Then why is there a tag called subjunctive-mood – Stallmp May 08 '18 at 09:06

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