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From the book : English Grammar and Exercises by L. R. H. Chapman, book 4:

"must is a defective verb, with only this one part, which is used to speak about the present time or a near future, as in these sentences: I must answer this letter at once; I must get up early tomorrow."

But then it is used in the both following examples with the past tense.

I really don't understand. Could you explain, please?

"After dinner Mr. Drew told the girls that he must leave the hotel for a few hours." (The Haunted Bridge by Carolyn Keene)

"The chimes of a clock warned Nancy that she must return to the car to meet her father. "

(The Message in the Hollow Oak by Carolyn Keene)

Rafiq
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  • The thread you refer to doesn' really clarify the issue I have. In that post, It was explained that "must" express the past in reported speech. But in the second example I provided there is no reported speech, at least in my understanding. – Rafiq Sep 11 '18 at 22:22
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    There is no reason why must can't refer to something in the past. He didn't show up on time. He *must* have been delayed. Here, it means "can only have been." Are you certain that the quotation from that grammar book isn't only talking about a specific use of the word? (However, in your second example, must is being used relative to the established past event of the clocks chiming. From her perspective at that time, it's referring to a present event.) – Jason Bassford Sep 12 '18 at 00:38
  • Must is a modal auxiliary verb. All modals are defective verbs, in that they only have one form -- no past, no infinitive, no gerund, no past participle -- so they don't refer to time at all. Just obligation/necessity in the case of will, would, shall, should, and must, or permission/possibility in the case of can, could, may, and might. Forget about tenses with modals; they don't have any, not even present tense (*He musts go now). – John Lawler Sep 12 '18 at 01:49

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