A sentence such as "I'd had an ice cream" is correct, and but when there is no apostrophe it becomes "I had had an ice cream"... Is this ok to write?
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Yes, it's grammatical. It's the same as saying I had eaten* an ice-cream* – Mari-Lou A Feb 25 '19 at 08:01
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"had had" is the past perfect (pluperfect) of "have". Just as you can say "I had spoken", you can say "I had had". – Zebrafish Feb 25 '19 at 08:02
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I should have cast my vote to close this question as a duplicate of What does “had had” mean? How does this differ from “had”? Someone else can. – Mari-Lou A Feb 25 '19 at 08:39
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1Yes, you can. Consecutive, identically-spelt words isn’t automatically ungrammatical. Just wait till you encounter the buffalo. – Lawrence Feb 25 '19 at 08:54