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It is something in this sentence, which does not seem correct to me. Maybe the way I use whom?

We use 70% of the data to estimate the probability of default of the remaining 30% of the data. In addition, we use the model in Section 5 to generate the latent space of the clients to whom we estimated the probability of default. <

user1571823
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    Nothing wrong with it, although possibly it's a bit odd to use estimate as a verb of communication with an indirect object. Perhaps substituting for whom instead of to whom would be better. – John Lawler Mar 09 '19 at 15:48
  • Thanks @John Lawler. Would it sound better "... the clients whom the default probability has been estimated."? . For me the way I wrote it in the original post is more direct, and i didnt notice the way "estimate" was used. But, of course, I am not a native speaker. – user1571823 Mar 09 '19 at 16:42
  • @user1571823 No, you can't drop the preposition. Not unless you want to change the meaning of the sentence: the clients who estimated* the default probability*. – Jason Bassford Mar 09 '19 at 20:11
  • You use 70% of the data to estimate 30% of the data? Not clear what exactly is happening here. I wonder what EXACTLY you do, and have someone given you money for that. – Rusty Core Mar 10 '19 at 01:17

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Your use is correct, though old fashioned.

To use whom correctly: Say "to him, to her, to them". Use to whom.

To correctly switch to who: Say "He is, she is, they are". Use who is. Or, anytime you don't want to use the nearly archaic whom.

The problem you're seeing may be "clients TO whom". Judging from the rest of your sentence, it looks like you "estimated for" them, unless statistics related grammar requires the "to".

PvtBuddie
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