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Current social standards and a sense of morality in our culture have led to the rejection of prostitution. It has been cast it aside as a deviant behaviour by the prostitute and the client. —The Contemporary Dictionary of Sexual Euphemisms, 1st ed., 2007

Please advise, is the second "it" in "It has been cast it aside" used correctly? Because it "feels" incorrect to me, I'd expect it omitted, as in "something has been cast aside by somebody". Or maybe it was voice transcription and writer pronounced an incorrect past participle "casted" which got recognised into "cast" + "it"?

Thank you.

revelt
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because it's about a typo or similar "meaningless error" – FumbleFingers Aug 17 '19 at 11:54
  • A past participle of a verbed form of the noun caste, which incidentally may be akin to chaste, would work, but it's unlikely. The adposition "... by" as is would appear as if it were the agens of the casting, unless the sentence was originally written in the active voice naming a subject, that would set the adposition into contrast, which may have been removed to avoid potentially controversial incrimination of the suspects. That is, likely, "the church has cast it". The church is a building though, it can castle, maybe, but it can't actively cast. So I suppose a good decision was taken. – vectory Aug 17 '19 at 12:51
  • The remaining "it" then must be a left-over by mistake. – vectory Aug 17 '19 at 13:31

1 Answers1

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It's an error. Probably an editing error: if the sentence was originally "We have cast it aside..." before being changed to passive voice, forgetting to delete the "it" is an easy mistake to make.

Chris H
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