"because it is she that I have watered": not "her"?

Question

In the book The Little Prince, there’s

because it is she that I have watered; because it is she that I have put under the glass globe

Why “she” instead of “her”?

Possible duplicate of Which one is correct to say: "It's me" or "It's I"? — Edwin Ashworth, Oct 28 '19 at 13:10

score 3 · Answer 1 · answered Oct 28 '19 at 08:43

3

One of those old rules of English grammar based on Latin grammar stated that 'nouns in apposition' (when we say A is B) must be in the same case. So it is strictly correct to say "It is I", though most people in everyday conversation would say "It's me".

The translator used a rather old-fashioned style, then, though as the flower (a rose, wasn't it?) is the object of the attentions it does seem odd to use she and not her.

answered Oct 28 '19 at 08:43

Kate Bunting

25,480

Have you come across ""It is her that I ..." in prose? – Kris Oct 28 '19 at 11:16
+1 ... and see other similar questions already answered on this site, eg: https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/336595/has-the-use-of-the-subject-pronoun-after-the-verb-to-be-become-archaic – ArchContrarian Oct 28 '19 at 13:06
@ Kris.I would like to know whether she or her is correct in the sentence.I think she is correct . – Jvlnarasimharao Oct 29 '19 at 04:35
@Kris: Google returns 19 results for "it was she that I", and 11 results for "it was her that I." Usage isn't coming down strongly on either side. – Peter Shor Oct 29 '19 at 10:58

score -2 · Answer 2 · edited Jun 15 '20 at 07:40

-2

It does sound a bit strange. I thought it was perhaps because of the French but in French we have:

...puisque c'est elle que j'ai arrosée. Puisque c'est elle que j'ai mise sous globe.

Elle in French is a pronoun that can be the subject (she) or the object of a verb (her). Here it is unambiguously the obejct of arroser (water) and mettre sous globe (put under a glass globe). There is nothing odd about the French sentence that could account for the translator's choice of she instead of her. It's a perfectly neutral way of saying things. The use of stilted or overly poetic language and constructions is clearly not called for. I would translate the passage as:

...because it is her that I have watered; because it is her that I have put under the glass globe

edited Jun 15 '20 at 07:40

Community

1

answered Oct 28 '19 at 07:37

grandtout

1,728

No, 'she' is fine here. It's slightly poetic prose. – marcellothearcane Oct 28 '19 at 07:52
In the days of Shakespeare, I believe you used she after forms of the verb to be, no matter whether you were formal or informal. (He uses "It was she 3 times, and never "it was her".) I don't think was ever true in French (c'est moi). It has changed in English, but some people still follow this rule with formal language. – Peter Shor Oct 28 '19 at 10:53

"because it is she that I have watered": not "her"?

2 Answers2