So, everything I see seems to indicate that "sales price" is the correct way to refer to the price that one pays for a house or similar type of property. However, would it not be better as "sale's price", being that the price "belongs" to the sale of the property thus making the word "sale" possessive? In the same way that you might call any details of the sale (including the price) the "sale's details"
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More usually (and uncontroversially) "asking price" and "selling price". – Weather Vane Feb 03 '20 at 16:17
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Your first sentence explains the correctness of sales price, ie that's the way it's generally written. Your more detailed analysis of why sale's price is better may be spot on (I'm not sure) but common practice trumps argument in language. – High Performance Mark Feb 03 '20 at 16:17
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1Your logic is sound. Alas, language has no requirement to be maximally logical, so that is not the correct usage. – Mike Graham Feb 03 '20 at 17:34
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Does this answer your question? traveller's cheques; customer's requirements: use of the singular Saxon genitive (and the plural attributive) for association – Edwin Ashworth Feb 03 '20 at 19:07
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Sale price, sales price, sale's price, sales' price, selling price - in fact, all these are used. In accountancy theory, I have often seen sales price. Child specialist, child psychology, sea shore, (sea's shore?) river bank (river's bank?) - Do we have a standard rule to cover these? – Ram Pillai Feb 04 '20 at 04:56
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Thank you for all your comments. There are most enlightening. – Harrison Feb 04 '20 at 18:50