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In this, "to be" is the base verb, conjugated in the first, singular, present tense "am". The verb is then put in a contraction with first, singular, pronoun "I" to create "I'm". This contraction is then made into a phrasal verb by adding either of the adjectives "up" or "down".

I am curious about why, in these cases, adding the prepositional phrase "for that" changes the meaning between the examples (2) and (4) which use "up".

But the change in meaning does not occur between (1) and (3).

(1) I'm down for that
(2) I'm up for that

(1) and (2) both parse as someone stating their own interest/availability for what "that" refers to. As in, for example, Person A asking "Want to go to the movies?" and Person B replying either "(1) I'm down for that" or "(2) I'm up for that".

(3) I'm down

(3) parses as someone stating their own interest/availability. In the same example, Person A asks "Want to go to the movies?" and Person B replies "(3) I'm down". So, saying "(1) I'm down for that" and "(3) I'm down" both have pretty much equivalent meaning in colloquial English.

(4) I'm up

(4) parses as someone stating they "are up" as in...
a) they have physically stood up or,
b) they are now conscious (after being asleep or unconscious).

So in the conversation example, Person A asks "Want to go to the movies?" and if Person B replies "(4) I'm up" -- it would be a strange answer.

Comparing "(2) I'm up for that" and "(4) I'm up" -- these do not have equivalent meaning. Adding the prepositional phrase "for that" changes the focus and meaning of the sentence. In (2) the focus is that the "I" is interested/available. In (4) the focus is on the state of being, not their interests.

Is there any slang etymology about "up" and the verb "to be" being combined as a phrasal verb? Additionally, is the effect of the prepositional phrase "for that" something that has trends, or is is an interesting isolated case in the situation of (2) vs (4)?

wanderling
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  • It may be analyzed when used in different POS. Up and down; up the hills & down the valleys; step-up & step-down. – Ram Pillai Mar 14 '20 at 04:19
  • Hi! @RamPillai That's a good point that looking at "up" and "down" in different parts of speech could lead to further analysis. In the examples in your comment, it seems "up" and "down" are both equally grammatical (though lead to different meanings) in the same context. Do you know any examples where one is grammatical, but the other is not? – wanderling Mar 14 '20 at 04:32
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    When UP and DOWN become part of phrasal verbs, it may have unexpected meaning(s). E.g., Look up (look up; phrasal verb of look = (of a situation) improve; "things seemed to be looking up at last") source Google. Look down upon has a different meaning. – Ram Pillai Mar 14 '20 at 04:38
  • @RamPillai So perhaps I should be thinking of the examples in my question in the sense of differences between phrasal verbs? And as a complicating factor, the adding of prepositional phrases to phrasal verb constructions? – wanderling Mar 14 '20 at 05:00
  • Yes, prepositional phrases, verbal phrases etc. are complicating. When we talk about UP and DOWN with diverse meanings, it could be considered. – Ram Pillai Mar 14 '20 at 05:07
  • @RamPillai Thank you for your time! I will do some thinking and possibly re-phrase my questions and examples to be more accurate. – wanderling Mar 14 '20 at 05:15
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    @wanderling To me *I'm down for that* = My name is on a list/it has all been arranged that I am coming. However, *I'm up for that* = I am keen to be involved. Where do I sign? – WS2 Mar 14 '20 at 07:57
  • @WS2 That is a valuable distinction between the usage of "I'm down for that" vs "I'm up for that" that I hadn't noticed until you pointed it out. Depending on the context (like my movie example) I still picture both potentially being used, but your semantic distinction - both versions of it -- also makes sense in use. But in other contexts -- like literally signing up or joining something in your example, the semantic differences do make a difference in what's being communicated. – wanderling Mar 14 '20 at 20:21
  • @WS2 To get into a sub-category, would I'm down for that = "My name is on a list/it has all been arranged that I am coming" = I'm down for you as well? – wanderling Mar 14 '20 at 20:22
  • @Jim I would say that answers 1/2 to 3/4 of my question. That is a fantastic stack/article. I can't access some of the sources that are linked (It looks like I'd have to buy some of the books before I could search through them) to search for instances of "up" usage. The focus on "up" is part of my primary question. I'm up [on it] is another example i thought of where adding the prepositional phrase changes the meaning of the phrasal verb. I guess, regarding "up" and prepositional phrases, it might be a case-by-case basis?? – wanderling Mar 14 '20 at 20:32
  • You're asking two very different things. 1. the etymology of "up/down for that" which is mostly answered in the potential duplicate, & 2. why "for that" can be deleted from "down" but not "up". You need to clarify which question you want answered, and if both, split this question into two as long as one of them is not answered by the duplicate. – CJ Dennis Mar 14 '20 at 21:38
  • @wanderling I'm not clear what you mean by "I'm down for you as well". – WS2 Mar 15 '20 at 13:26
  • @WS2 Oops, sorry! The way i structured that is confusing. I'm trying to ask if the two bold phrase both equal the phrase that is in quotations for you. the "for you as well" was asking if the bold text = quotations text = bold text --- does that semantic meaning hold true for you as well? the "for you as well" is not part of the phrase that I ask about. Is that better explained? – wanderling Mar 15 '20 at 18:34

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