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What is the reasoning by which people decided not to use ’s to indicate the possession of pronouns?

For example, one might write

  • It is Jack's dog.
  • The dog is Jack's.

But not

  • It is their dog.
  • The dog is their's.

Why does using a pronoun not follow the same apostrophe-s pattern as used for the noun it replaces?

Andrew Leach
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user382881
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  • Hello, user382881. Please edit your question to include 1. an example of at least one sentence where people did not use 's, and 2. the reason why you think it should be used. – Conrado Apr 26 '20 at 21:44
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    @Conrado (1) is trivial because theirs is correct standard English. (2) is simply "it follows the same pattern." – Andrew Leach Apr 26 '20 at 22:01
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    I suspect that the suggested "related question" about it's/its is relevant. – Andrew Leach Apr 26 '20 at 22:05
  • Thank you, @Andrew Leach. Still, an example like the one user382881 included now helps to clarify the reason for the question and OP's initial data. – Conrado Apr 26 '20 at 22:11

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