2

While translating a text I came across this doubt that has been pestering me for too long, why is it possible to have these two constructions:

A) scene of crime. B) crime scene. (although this one is more frequent.)

However, only (A) 'History book' is possible but not (B) 'book of History'.

On the other hand, (A) 'medicinal plants book' does not sound correct; while you find construction (B) 'book of medicinal plants' frequently used.

I fail to grasp the difference here and keep making mistakes. If anyone could help, please? PS: I've read similar questions but they dealt with different aspects. Is it really semantics?

rzaccaron
  • 91

2 Answers2

0

One is used in cases of a adjective applied to a proper noun, i.e. “a history book”. In the case “history book” is a proper noun to describe a item within a genre.

Where as the other form is applying a prepositional phrase; i.e “a book of Fairytales”. In this case the noun is the book, and “fairytales” is a secondary noun that describes the subject matter of the primary noun.

Use X of Y when X is the subject and Y is providing additional specificity for X.

Use YX where Y and X combined form a singular noun describing a generalized subject.

So the question to consider is are you describing a general concept (a history book, a science book, an art book, etc.) or the subject (a book of art, a book of scary stories, etc.)

In your other example, “the scene of the crime”, the primary noun is “the scene” and the secondary noun is “the crime”. Where as the crime scene is a proper noun. Also it could be noted that “the scene of the crime” is more literary and dramatic than idiomatic. It may not be the best example of the specific article of speech you are addressing.

Eliot G York
  • 5,220
-1

In "scene of crime", "of crime" is a prepositional phrase, acting like an adjective and modifying "scene".

In "crime scene", "crime" is a noun being used as an adjective to modify "scene". Nouns that modify other nouns are called noun adjuncts, adjectival nouns, noun modifiers, and several other terms, depending on which sect of English grammarism you adhere to.

These are just two different ways to express the same concept. I know of no language that does not have similar situations where a concept can be expressed several ways.

Hot Licks
  • 27,508
  • 1
    This does not address the basic question, 'Why The International Book of Beer but a cookery book?' – Edwin Ashworth May 03 '20 at 16:46
  • @EdwinAshworth - Because English! – Hot Licks May 03 '20 at 17:09
  • @EdwinAshworth - Language is mobile and liable to change. It is a free country, and man may call a "vase" a "vawse", a "vahse", a "vaze", or a "vase", as he pleases. And why should he not? We do not all think alike, walk alike, dress alike, write alike, or dine alike; why should not we use our liberty in speech also, so long as the purpose of speech, to be intelligible, and its grace, are not interfered with? -James Murray, lexicographer and editor of the Oxford English Dictionary (7 Feb 1837-1915) – Hot Licks May 03 '20 at 17:29
  • 3
    But there are better attempts to begin to explain some aspects of the different distribution (than 'it's just the way it is') at the duplicate. – Edwin Ashworth May 03 '20 at 18:08