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Let's say that it's 2 p.m. now, and I ran this morning for 1 hour (normally I run for 30 minutes).

I want to express that I'm still tired from running - so is it correct to say, "I have run for 1 hour"?

It's not enough just to say "I have run" because I wouldnt be tired now if I had run only for 30 minutes as usual.

Nor can I say "I've been running for 1 hour" because that would mean either I'm still running or I've just finished running.

Lucas
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    Why are you uncomfortable with what you actually wrote? You wrote, "I ran this morning for one hour....I'm still tired." The fact that you're tired should have no effect on the tense you choose for the verb "run". – Isabel Archer May 30 '20 at 10:05
  • I have run also doesn't necessitate that you've stopped running. The only verb tense that you've mentioned that does explicitly mean you're no longer running is ran. But there is no verb tense in existence that can convey the meaning of because it lasted longer than my normal 30 minutes. Regardless of the verb tense you use, you still have to add that qualification. – Jason Bassford May 30 '20 at 10:07
  • Isabel Archer, I am comfortable with my past simple sentence - I am concerned about my present perfect one "I have run for 1 hour." If you say that the fact of me being tired should have no effect on the tense choice is something new to me because well... every grammar source says that present perfect is used for past actions (like running) affecting the present (like I'm tired now). – Lucas May 30 '20 at 13:26
  • Jason Bassford, this is one of the things that confuse me a lot with perfect tenses - isn't the present perfect used to indicate completion of an action? Can I still be writing a book in the sentence "I have written a book"? Shouldnt it be obvious that the running is finished because otherwise I would have used the present perfect progressive? I know I always have to add the adverbial phrase - I'm just concerned if I can use such a phrase with the present perfect. – Lucas May 30 '20 at 13:44

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