This sentence is from google dictionary. I only know that "due to" is used for a noun in the sense "caused by", for instance, His defeat was due to lack of practice. Can it also be used with verb like withdraw?
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The verb before (withdraw) has nothing to do with the structure used for "due to". The rule is "(be) due to + N" e.g. The country's economic problems are largely due to the weakness of the recovery... – Patrick D Dec 04 '20 at 10:37
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"He had to withdraw due to a knee injury" = "Due to a knee injury, he had to withdraw" = "He had to withdraw because of a knee injury" – Patrick D Dec 04 '20 at 10:48
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@PatrickD could you tell me which one is correct to say "he has died due to heart attack" or " he has died because of heart attack" or both. (in addition to this please tell me, do I need an article before heart attack ?) – Rishiraj Chauhan Dec 05 '20 at 07:09
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@EdwinAshworth thanks ! the sentence formation in that question is different from this sentence. the verb "be" used in those sentences. – Rishiraj Chauhan Dec 05 '20 at 07:13
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@Rishiraj Chauhan "He has died due to heart attack" or " He has died because of heart attack". The article "a" before "heart attack" is necessary. But, both sentences sound quite awkward. I'd rather say : "He died of a heart attack". – Patrick D Dec 05 '20 at 09:09
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No; the example 'He failed because of bad planning' is discussed and one finds 'traditional restrictions on "due to" are being increasingly abandoned by modern style guides and may eventually be abolished altogether', grudgingly licensing 'He failed due to bad planning', 'he had to withdraw due to a knee injury'. – Edwin Ashworth Dec 05 '20 at 12:19
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@Rishiraj Chauhan Answer already given two days ago. Read all the comments again. – Patrick D Dec 06 '20 at 15:02
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The answer was given in the earlier thread. (1) No practised Anglophone would have a problem with the sentence 'He had to withdraw because of a knee injury.' (2) Some hyperprescriptivists would still have a problem with 'He had to withdraw due to a knee injury.' They still believe the 'due to = caused by and not because of' shibboleth. (3) Many dictionaries and grammars accept the 'due to can = because of as well as caused by' rule. It should be accepted by all, but some tutors etc haven't caught up with reality. (4) All this has already been explained in earlier threads. – Edwin Ashworth Dec 06 '20 at 16:45
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thanks everyone , my doubt is cleared now. – Rishiraj Chauhan Dec 07 '20 at 17:03