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In reference to "I can't get no satisfaction" vs "I can't get any satisfaction", Steven Pinker said (at 6:13):

But "can't" and "any" is just as much of a double-negative as "can't" and "no".

I understand his broader point about one dialect being chosen over another as "the correct one", due to where the political power was, but I don't understand why "can't get any" is a double-negative.

tchrist
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MWB
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    It isn't a double negative. – Hot Licks Jan 09 '21 at 13:46
  • Please give a more specific reference. // Offhand, if 'no' is seen as merely an emphasiser of 'can't' in the non-standard statement, 'any' can be seen as one also: it's not grammatically required here. So (x -2) rather than (x -1) (x -1) (x the operator) in the non-standard variant, and (x -2) in the acceptable one. Negation writ large, not a flip-flop. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 09 '21 at 13:47
  • Neither can I. We have not any bananas is the same as we have no bananas, isn't it? – Kate Bunting Jan 09 '21 at 13:48
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    Not only is he wrong, I'm more concerned about his blithe use of have sang (twice!) even though it's corrected in the subtitles to "have sung". – Andrew Leach Jan 09 '21 at 13:49
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    "I don't have three bananas, I don't have two bananas, I don't have any bananas." All have a single negative. – Weather Vane Jan 09 '21 at 13:54
  • Apparently, The only reason that “can’t get any satisfaction” is deemed correct and “can’t get no satisfaction” is deemed ungrammatical is that the dialect of English spoken in the south of England in the 17th century used “can’t”“any” rather than “can’t” “no.” – FumbleFingers Jan 09 '21 at 14:37
  • @EdwinAshworth "I've eventually found the actual relevant piece on the recording" ?! The link in the Q has a time stamp: 6m13s. Are you the one who downvoted and voted to close? – MWB Jan 09 '21 at 17:16
  • Pinker's rationale could lie in English needing "any" to emphasise the absolute lack of something. Why couldn't we just stick to "I can't get satisfaction"? which is also grammatical. – Mari-Lou A Jan 09 '21 at 17:19
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    @Mari-Lou A I think Pinker's being deliberately provocative here. He also misuses 'have sang' though probably he can find marginal justification somewhere; 'sang'/'sung' are variants for the past simple. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 09 '21 at 17:33
  • @Andrew Leach Do you think Pinker's being deliberately provocative here? He does misuse 'have sang' though probably he can find marginal justification somewhere; 'sang'/'sung' are standard variants for the past simple in the US. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 09 '21 at 17:34
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    This question is based on the incorrect premise that the statement contains a double negative. – Jim Jan 09 '21 at 20:52
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    You’d be much better off asking this question on Linguistics Stack Exchange. People there would understand Pinker’s point much better. They’re likely to only be able to view this through the prism of Standard Englishes here. – Araucaria - Him Jan 09 '21 at 21:17
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    @AndrewLeach It's entirely fine to do so, but saying Pinker doesn't understand what he's talking about is a bit like saying that Higgs doesn't know about subatomic particles or that John Wells doesn't understand what RP is. The fact is that Pinker's point is entirely missed here. There is no "double negative" in the original in the way that a socio-linguistically conservative Standard English speaker might imagine that there is. There isn't in the "any" case either. But if you judge there is in the former, there is in the latter too in the important respects.[Those idiots like Higgs! tsk] – Araucaria - Him Jan 11 '21 at 03:22
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    @Araucaria-Nothereanymore. While I do agree about linguistics SE I do not understand why there is no double negative in there. This kind of phrase is often used as an example of negative concord also appearing in (non-prescriptivistically-standard) English. That means it is a double negative where each negative word makes the point stronger. That's why I argued under one answer to first well define the terms we will be using. Otherwise different people will call different stuff being a "souble negative" and each may be right within the definition they use. – Vladimir F Героям слава Jan 11 '21 at 13:37
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    @Araucaria-Nothereanymore. Of course it's a double negative. That's simply the name of this construction. That doesn't mean to say there's anything wrong with it. – Especially Lime Jan 11 '21 at 15:23
  • @EspeciallyLime There is no 'double negative construction' in English! And even if there were, these two different, ahem, constructions (the 'one' in standard English, and the other 'one' that exists in almost every other variety of English) are not a single construction - easy to prove because such sentences have entirely different meanings. – Araucaria - Him Jan 11 '21 at 21:44
  • @Araucaria-Nothereanymore. I like your “There is no 'double negative construction' in English!”, so I’m thinking you might enjoy this. Or not. – tchrist Jan 12 '21 at 04:56
  • An orange is just as much of a telescope as an apple is. Of course, this is (as far as I can see) incontrovertible. But if someone can find a definition in reasonably common use of 'telescope/s' that makes it unsound, do say. The problem here is that 'negative', and 'double-negative' are terms that are used as metalanguage in 'grammar', but 'negative' is ill-defined and 'double-negative' is even rejected by many academics. These linguists might say 'An orange is just as much of a "double-negative" as an apple is'. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 12 '21 at 12:52

5 Answers5

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The word any, when used in a negation, is a Negative Polarity Item (NPI), which is defined by the paper Definite Descriptions and Negative Polarity as words that “seem happy under negation and are sometimes unhappy without negation”.

When you have a double negative, “standard” English dictates that you need to use a single negative but not both (or else you get litotes):

  • I can’t get satisfaction.
  • I can get no satisfaction.

In contrast, you don’t get a grammatical sentence with any:

  • I can get any satisfaction.

“I can get any satisfaction” would be grammatical as part of a longer sentence but note then how it doesn’t mean “no satisfaction”. Note also that there’s another sense of any (“free choice any”) with a completely different meaning that would be grammatical in similar sentences because it’s not a NPI (“I can get any TV” meaning that no TVs are out of your budget).

I decided to see how this compares with a dialect where double negatives emphasize the negative instead of canceling it.

I did a lemma-grouped search for VERB no in COCA to get a baseline for American English. I looked at a random sample of 100 for the phrase “[MAKE] no”. All the hits I saw were single negatives. The same was true for the same search in iWeb.

I searched CORAAL for AAVE examples using the regex \bma[kd][^.,|]* no\b which is a slightly broader search but ultimately trying to find similar examples. 13 or so hits were “double negatives”, such as “don’t make no sense”. There were about 5-6 examples with a single negative (such as “that makes no sense”). This shows that the single negative “no” is at least sometimes used among speakers of the dialect, though it’s impossible to know why from this alone. In searches for other verbs (such as one looking for “can ... no”), I haven’t been able to find any examples with the single negative “no” but I can’t tell if that’s because there’s not enough data or if it’s ungrammatical in the dialect.

There’s a paper that suggests that words like “no” are NPIs in AAVE but they don’t follow all the same rules as NPIs like “any” in “standard” English, though I didn’t have time to read it fully.

Laurel
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    "In contrast, you don’t get a grammatical sentence with any: "I can get any satisfaction." *A: "At law, you will obtain legal satisfaction; by denouncing him you may obtain moral satisfaction; by beating him to a pulp you may obtain physical satisfaction. but none of these are what you want. Give up!"* *B: Rubbish, man! I can get any satisfaction." – Greybeard Jan 09 '21 at 19:16
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    @Greybeard That’s “free choice any”, which is the same as in “I can get any TV”. (Still, even in your example, it doesn’t sound very natural to me with ”satisfaction”.) – Laurel Jan 09 '21 at 20:21
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    This kind of misses Pinker’s point, I believe, which is that in those dialects in which ain’t ... no is grammatical, the no is not a negator (it isn’t a ‘negative’) it is just concord. Many NPIs such as any are basically also a type of concord. – Araucaria - Him Jan 09 '21 at 20:25
  • This is a prescriptivist answer to an argument critiquing the validity of prescriptivism on linguistic grounds. – Konrad Rudolph Jan 11 '21 at 12:03
  • @KonradRudolph If the video is criticizing some prescriptivist concept than the explanation of that very concept being criticized must used the context in which it is being criticized. Even if you are a complete antiprescriptivist, you have to be able to formulate what you are against. If you are against some rule, you have to be able to say what the rule says in the first place. – Vladimir F Героям слава Jan 11 '21 at 12:26
  • @VladimirF Even if this were true (and it clearly isn’t, if you don’t accept the premise: an atheist doesn’t need to argue for the non-existence of a deity using “evidence” contained in the Bible, and in fact doing so would be completely counter-productive, since the very premise is that the Bible doesn’t offer reliable evidence), a complete answer would have to go beyond prescriptivism. Yet this answer doesn’t; it authoritatively uses the term “grammatical” in a sense that’s implicitly prescriptivist, and different from Pinker’s usage. – Konrad Rudolph Jan 11 '21 at 13:32
  • @VladimirF More succinctly: this answer explains why a given definition exists in Standard English. It does however not answer the actual question: namely, why Steven Pinker says something different, and whether/why he has a good reason to do so. So at best this answer is off topic. – Konrad Rudolph Jan 11 '21 at 13:34
  • @KonradRudolph Yes, perhaps the answer does miss this aspect. However, your god-existence argument is completely off or a straw man. An atheist only needs to be able to tell what he believes that actually does not exist. If he says there is no such supranatural entity described in this or that religion, that is entirely sufficient. But he must be able to tell what he understands under the word "god" when he says that there is not any. If you say "this is not a double negative", you must be able to say what you or other people mean by "a double negative" and why it is not one. – Vladimir F Героям слава Jan 11 '21 at 13:44
  • @VladimirF But in Standard English, the example clearly is a double negative. Pinker’s deeper claim is that the premise of Standard English — prescriptivism — is linguistically invalid (or at least uninteresting). So Pinker uses a different definition of the term than that of SE, so that definition is really quite irrelevant, except as a footnote. – Konrad Rudolph Jan 11 '21 at 13:56
  • @KonradRudolph If you define your terms so that they suit your confusing statements, it makes your statement formally true but it makes them confusing and irrelevant when arguing that someone else using those terms differently may or may not be correct. Also, defining a standardised language dialect is not linguistically invalid or uninteresting. It may not be what many like to do but it is not invalid. There will always be various idiolects, regional dialects, social class sociolects and what not and there must be some way how some standard can be defined. – Vladimir F Героям слава Jan 11 '21 at 14:42
  • Such a definition is useful for many things, like style guide to be followed at some particular newspaper outlets, when learning the language as a foreigner and s on. It does NOT make any of the other dialects, sociolects or idiolects inferior, wrong or invalid. Also, it does not make any such standard to be unique as any such news outlet can define their own standard they will follow and, in English, various English for foreigners teaching establishments can teach a slightly different dialect with different rules. But there must be some common subset to be able to communicate. – Vladimir F Героям слава Jan 11 '21 at 14:44
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    @VladimirF You are misunderstanding Pinker’s claims. Let us continue this discussion in chat. – Konrad Rudolph Jan 11 '21 at 14:55
  • negative polarity item .. it's like an ANTIMATTER WORD! whaaa! – Fattie Jan 11 '21 at 19:58
  • Does this make any sense? :-) – Russell McMahon Jan 11 '21 at 22:30
  • Examples from a popular song (in the vernacular?)... King of the Road, Roger Miller. ...No phone, no pool, no pets; I ain't got no cigarettes. "ain't got no cigarettes" means "don't have any cigarettes" – geneSummons Jan 11 '21 at 23:51
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    I don't get the argument about any NOT being the "free choice" any in "I can't get any satisfaction". Analogously, "I can get any TV" - "I can't get any TV". – Marandil Jan 12 '21 at 00:30
  • @Marandil It’s not free choice any, which is why it’s not idiomatic to use it outside a negative context – Laurel Jan 12 '21 at 04:30
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    @Laurel You are answering "why is it not the "free choice any"?" with "it is not". I've been using it like this all my English speaking life. I am not a native speaker of Standard English, though. But then, who is? – I'm with Monica Jan 12 '21 at 08:11
  • In the light of Lawler's acclaimed paper on the scope of negation, it would be better if you specified a definition for 'double negative' as a compound noun. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 12 '21 at 11:30
  • @Araucaria When it contains a negated verb and a negated object, a clause can indeed be interpreted as a double negative. For example, "they never go nowhere" could mean the same as "they always go somewhere". Of course, it could also mean the same as "they never go anywhere". But if a clause contains more than two negative or negative-polarity constituents the result is simply negative concord: "They don't never go nowhere with nobody for no reason" means the same as "They never go anywhere with anybody for any reason". – H Stephen Straight Jan 12 '21 at 21:14
  • @HStephenStraight Hi Steve, you say that a negated verb and object could be interpreted as a double negative or not (which I take to mean could involve two logical negations). However, apart from in complex cases such as where a speaker of one dialect mimics or borrows from another, they either entail two logical negations or they don't according to the dialect in question. No? You then say that if a clause contains more than two negative/NPIs the result is negative concord. I'm not sure I can agree. Your sentence "They don't never go nowhere with nobody for no reason" could mean ... – Araucaria - Him Jan 13 '21 at 18:26
  • @HStephenStraight "Occasionally they do go nowhere with nobody for no reason" in most standard Englishes. In fact there are several readings that could be given in standard English depending on the scopes of the negatives. None of those see to me, however, to be resolvable to "They never go anywhere with anybody for any reason". But maybe I'm missing your point. [Small niggle to be ignored: "They never go nowhere" doesn't involve an object!] – Araucaria - Him Jan 13 '21 at 18:26
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The problem is that "Double Negative" doesn't have any specific meaning. Like "Split Infinitive", it's a product of popular grammatical mythology, not logic.

First, there is a lot more negation around than one might have suspected.
As it says here,

... examples include syntactic constructions (This is it, isn’t it? Not any big ones, he didn’t), variation (so didn’t I; ain’t got none), morphology (-n’t, -free, un-), (morpho)phonology (do/don’t), intonations (‘Riiight’), and lexemes sporting negation overt (not, never, nix), incorporated (doubt, lack), calculated (few), entailed (prohibit), or presupposed (only).

And these interact together in all kinds of ways. It's not a case of two negatives yielding a positive; English is not algebra. Sometimes negatives do cancel, as in

  • That is not an unexpected result.

where the two negatives form a rhetorical phrase to say something like
You're right, but we already knew that.

Plenty of other negatives don't cancel out. For instance,

  • Not in here, you can't do that

does not give the addressee permission to do that in here.

And then there's the problem of multiple negations. One can get trapped by using a negative phrase without realizing it; one negative too many results in what Language Log calls a Misnegation, like

The government rushed to investigate the case thoroughly, eager to dispel any notion that it did not take lightly the killing of one of its citizens.

As far as NPIs being negative, think of them as all being locked in the negative field together. You wouldn't know that iron was magnetic but copper wasn't if you didn't know about magnetic fields. Plenty of languages just license any negatives inside a negative field, like Spanish No saben nada 'they don't know anything', literally "not know-3pl nothing". AAVE is like that, but whitebread English licenses NPIs instead.

So, I wouldn't worry about what Steven Pinker said. He said it in a different context, was talking about something else, and was probly just trying to break the news gently.

John Lawler
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    Fake negatives. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 10 '21 at 17:28
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    An interesting concept; could be a good epistemology paper. – John Lawler Jan 10 '21 at 17:32
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    Hardly black and white, Pinker. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 10 '21 at 17:56
  • @Phil Just a slip, not Freudian. // I'm avoiding any further temptations to pun. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 10 '21 at 17:57
  • But the ususal concept of double negatives and negative concord is limited to a single clause and only in a specific way. "That is not an unexpected result." cancels out even in negative concord languages. – Vladimir F Героям слава Jan 11 '21 at 12:19
  • Right. Those are the ones where the negative field is strong. When it's weak, you get a lot of interference with other fields, like modals and quantifiers (all of which "bind" or "focus" other constituents). – John Lawler Jan 11 '21 at 14:27
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    Yeah, right. :-) – Russell McMahon Jan 12 '21 at 00:19
  • Not in here, you can't do that That is not a double negative. It is a repetition of the same negative. Why? Because you wouldn't say this as an isolated sentence. It must be in reply to a question. E.g. Q:"Can I smoke in here?" A: "Not in here" (answer to the query "in here?") and "You can't " merely repeats and emphasises. It means "You can't do that in here." You could punctuate as follows: Q: Can I smoke? A: "Not in here! You can't do that!" P.S. You could add any number of conditions without creating a double negative, "No. Not in here. No you can't. Not in a million years. Etc" – chasly - supports Monica Jan 12 '21 at 13:31
  • It's a "double negative" within the meaning of the act, since excluding them from consideration would require serious parsing, as you demonstrated. In the realm of grammatical mythology and not scientific syntax, parsing needs to be held to a minimum or you lose your audience. Don't forget, we're not really a group of linguists here. Note how successful CGEL terminology has been. Or not. – John Lawler Jan 12 '21 at 18:21
8

Summary

Steven Pinker does not say that “can’t get anyis a double negative, merely that it is no less of one than “can’t get no”. I think he is exaggerating, to make the point that grammatical rules are arbitrary rather than logical.

What Pinker actually says

The questioner writes

I don't understand why "can't get any" is a double-negative.

Steven Pinker does not claim that it is a double negative, only that

‘“can’t” and “any” is just as much of a double negative as “can’t” and “no”.’

What I think he means

I take him to mean that English works equally well whether the rule for totally negating “can get” is to say “can’t get no” or to say “can’t get any”, and he goes on to point out that it is a historical accident that “can’t … any” came to be preferred by those laying down the rules.

He is explaining the difference between descriptive and prescriptive rules, and says that

many of the prescriptive rules make no sense whatsoever

and uses the rules forbidding “split infinitives” and “double negatives” to illustrate this.

He is making the point that prescriptive grammar is more arbitrary and less logically compelling than people often suppose it to be, and that dialects which do not conform to it can be just as complex and expressive.

I do not, however, think it fair to say (as he does not explicitly) that the rule forbidding double negatives makes no sense whatsoever; in fact it codifies a convention which may be useful in some contexts.

We can define “double negative” so that the rule makes sense

What I think is confusing about Pinker’s claim is that “no” is in fact considerably more strongly associated with negation than “any” is. If we choose to therefore classify “can’t” and “no” as negative, but not “any”, and define a “double negative” as a construct using two words we classify as negative, then “can’t get no” is a double negative while “can’t get any” is not.

The rule does not forbid all double negatives and may be useful

Moreover, what the rule actually means is not to avoid a double negative, but to avoid using it to express simple negation: there are two negatives in “don’t say he’s not welcome”, “say not the struggle nought availeth”, “let nobody say you are not a sensualist” and perhaps even “thou shalt not bear false witness”, but all are acceptable. The point is that these are interpreted so that one negative negates part of the utterance containing another negative, while the negatives in “can’t get no” support one another.

If we want to construct complicated sentences, perhaps in a mathematical or philosophical context, in which we can negate arbitrary constructs, we need to agree when one negative negates a construct, and when two negatives belong together to form a simple negation. A simple rule to achieve this is to forbid the latter case – but this comes at the expense of classifying many common utterances as incorrect.

PJTraill
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"Can't get any" is not a double negative because "any" is just the version of "some" in a negative context or question context (the so-called non assertive contexts). So, as you say "I don't have any chalk." when someone asks you "Do you have chalk?", and not "I don't have some chalk.", you also say "I can't get any satisfaction out of that hobby." when someone asks "Can you get any satisfaction out of that hobby?" (and you don't get any).

LPH
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    @EdwinAshworth "I've eventually found the actual relevant piece on the recording" ?! The link in the Q has a time stamp: 6m13s. Are you the one who downvoted and voted to close? – MWB Jan 09 '21 at 17:13
  • @MaxB I was diverted the first time I tried; context should be given without the need to trace it. From what I remember, Pinker is quite famous in grammatical circles. He's probably making a point: 'double negative' is not well-defined (there are two partly contradictory definitions in common use). Though neither applies to this (second) example. // Double negatives have been well covered on ELU before, and relevant research (at least) should be shown (Nordquist spells out the usual two definitions of 'double negative'). It's pretty basic to see that neither definition applies in this case. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 09 '21 at 17:24
  • I don't understand why this doesn't have more upvotes. "Any" and "some" are clearly two sides of the same coin: "I don't have any water" / "I have some water". – Django Reinhardt Jan 11 '21 at 12:47
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    @DjangoReinhardt Because it doesn’t at all answer this question, and because it’s wrong (except in a very narrow context which is different from the implicit context of the question — and even in that context the answer doesn’t offer a good explanation, it’ just repeats a claim). – Konrad Rudolph Jan 11 '21 at 13:35
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    @KonradRudolph On the contrary, this answer is to the point, albeit treated lightly since references have not been used. This can be read in CGEL, p. 83 § 2.53: "Yes-No questions are also related to the negation through their association with a set of words which we may call NON-ASSERTIVE FORMS: any, anybody, anywhere, yet, etc.. These in turn contrast with corresponding ASSERTIVE FORMS (some, somebody, somewhere, already, etc.) which are associated with positive statements." 5 positive votes bear witness to the inappropriateness of your claim of total irrelevance. – LPH Jan 11 '21 at 14:09
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    @CGEL is a prescriptivist reference. Pinker is a linguist, and he does not accept the exclusivity of prescriptivist language definitions as valid. The context of the quote in the question, then, is intentionally descriptivist, to which your answer does not apply. – Konrad Rudolph Jan 11 '21 at 14:56
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    @KonradRudolph I don't think Pinker can logically support a theory of the negative import of "any" in today's English. This assertion of his about "any" being a negative word is for the time being a mere proposition. All that can be said is that it is specialized to negative contexts and questions (essentially). By the way, CGEL (Quirk et al.) is not particularly prescriptive in my opinion. – LPH Jan 11 '21 at 15:13
  • @KonradRudolph CGEL : Our primary concern in this book is to describe the grammar of English. – LPH Jan 11 '21 at 15:18
  • @LPH “I don't think Pinker can logically support a theory of the negative import of "any" in today's English” — That isn’t what he’s claiming, but that still doesn’t make prescriptivism relevant to this question. I’ll take your point about CGEL not being prescriptivist; but I’ll note that it still doesn’t fit with Pinker’s claim, and your answer still doesn’t explain the quote, it just flat out claims, without arguing the case, that he’s wrong. Adding a descriptivist reference would make this answer better, but an actual argument is still somewhat lacking, and makes CGEL unconvincing. – Konrad Rudolph Jan 11 '21 at 15:22
  • @KonradRudolph True, I bring into the matter nothing substantial of my own, merely my faith in a certain grammatical establishment and a personal impression; as you might agree, we can't forever be questioning over and over the same things, but maybe in this particular case a reassessment is called for and I am curious to know what could be its terms. Nevertheless, I'll bring to your notice that such a reassessment is still not the subject of the leading answer on this matter, which is in fact, a blunt denial of Pinker's claim. – LPH Jan 11 '21 at 15:34
  • @LPH Yes, see my comments there: the currently leading answer is completely off-topic. – Konrad Rudolph Jan 11 '21 at 15:38
1

I understand his broader point about one dialect being chosen over another as "the correct one", due to where the political power was, but I don't understand why "can't get any" is a double-negative.

If "I can't get any satisfaction" and "I can't get no satisfaction" mean the same thing, and the words "I", "can't", "get", and "satisfaction" mean the same thing in both sentences, then necessarily, the words "no" and "any" mean the same thing in that context.

Whether or not a word is a "negative" is a question about its meaning. It's a negative, in that context, if it means the absence of something and not the presence of something.

Thus if "no" is a negative in "I can't get no satisfaction", then "any" is a negative in "I can't get any satisfaction".

David Schwartz
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  • Everything in your answer works fine... except that last sentence. It does not follow from any of the previous. – Mitch Jan 11 '21 at 01:24
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    @Mitch Yes, it does. If the two words mean the same thing in that context, and whether a word is a negative or not depends on what it means, then either both are negatives or neither are. – David Schwartz Jan 11 '21 at 04:47
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    Oh. That fact is where I disagree. I can replace one word with another but that doesn't mean they mean the some thing. 'The red chili' is different from 'the green chili'. Two different things. As to 'any', it does not mean absence. It is certainly used in the -context- of a negative - it doesn't work in the positive version '*I get any satisfaction' is wrong, but that doesn't make it a negative. – Mitch Jan 11 '21 at 13:27
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    There's also the supposition that 'lexeme' = 'orthographic word', which Crystal (and he introduced the term 'lexeme' and defined it) shows is demonstrably untrue. Or rather, more generally, that sound syntactical analysis can always break things down into orthographic words. 'Kick the bucket' in the metaphorical sense is a lexeme, synonym 'die'. Here, 'can't get no' = 'can't get any' = 'can't get'. Only the simplest form, stripped of complicating quantifier, is readily analysable. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 11 '21 at 14:53
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    @Mitch But it follows from straightforward, standard propositional logic rules. Your example sentences don’t follow the same pattern because they have differences meanings. But in this answer the meaning is the same, as per the premise in its first sentence (with which you’ve agreed). – Konrad Rudolph Jan 11 '21 at 15:00
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    @KonradRudolph Then I must be mistaken about what I said I agree with and I must misunderstand some of the words being used to describe the situation. "I can't get no..." is grammatical in both varieties but mean different things. In standard English it is possible to parse it compositionally (resulting in a double negative which is positive). In the informal variety, it is not compositional and therefore not a double negative. Re 'any', if analyzed compositionally, it certainly does not equate with a negative. If non-compositionally, then it's an idiom and still not a second negative. – Mitch Jan 11 '21 at 16:01
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    @Mitch So I guess your position is that the words "I can't get" don't mean the same thing in "I can't get no satisfaction" as they do in "I can't get any satisfaction". I wonder if you could actually explain what the difference is. One could certainly take the position that you can never attribute meanings to individual words and that somehow it's only entire works that mean anything, but I don't think that's true. At least subjectively, those words label the same concepts in both utterances for me. – David Schwartz Jan 11 '21 at 17:53
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    @EdwinAshworth “I can’t say anything,” said the first speaker. “That’s fine, then I can say nothing, too,” added the second speaker. “You’re both mice. I can’t possibly say nothing!” exclaimed the third speaker in exasperation. “Same here: I just can’t* not say anything. It wouldn’t be right,” said the fourth speaker, shaking his head in disbelief.* What’s your call: are there any unacceptable negatives there? Feel free to decode via Horn’s rule that Lawler likes to cite. :) – tchrist Jan 12 '21 at 02:56
  • @KonradRudolph natural language is simply not following the laws of propositional logic. And that is okay. Language needs to express connotations, questions, overtones and possibly other things that aren't propositions, and at least for English, native speakers decided to not follow the rules of propositional logic for constructing sentences that contain negations. – toolforger Jan 12 '21 at 09:17
  • @toolforger You’re misunderstanding what I’m saying. The propositional logic I’m talking about refers to the logical consistency of the argument in this answer, not to a supposed logical consistency of the double negative. – Konrad Rudolph Jan 12 '21 at 10:07
  • Ah okay, the reference to propositional logic struck me as odd. – toolforger Jan 12 '21 at 10:32
  • @tchrist Ignoring in (1) the different usages of the modal 'can' (one assumes that context would satisfy the fundamental Horn requirement), (2) being ambiguous 'needs' rephrasing. (3) and (4) would be better rephrased ("I can't keep silent about this matter", etc) if only on stylystic grounds. // In the UK, 'Rule 112 of the Highway code says that you must not use your horn “when driving in a built-up area between the hours of 11.30pm and 7.00am" ' While I'm sure JL wasn't invoking this horn rule, I think he was giving a derived rule of thumb, derived from the original. – Edwin Ashworth Jan 12 '21 at 15:17
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    If 2+2 and 2² mean the same thing (4), and if ² is an exponent, then +2 must also be an exponent. – Cerberus - Reinstate Monica Jan 12 '21 at 17:24
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    And you could as easily substitute "sexual" for "any" in that sentence ("I can't get sexual satisfaction") and conclude that "sexual" was a negative. – Robusto Jan 12 '21 at 17:28
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    Your first premise is why people object to a double negative, in standard English "I can't get no satisfaction" does not/should not (logically) have the same meaning as "I can't get any satisfaction". "I can't get no satisfaction" should (logically) mean that you always get satisfaction--you are unable to get "no satisfaction". (Of course by context we understand that this is vernacular English where a double negative intensifies the meaning, rather than standard English, but your grade school English teacher was definitely applying the rules of standard English regardless.) – user3067860 Jan 12 '21 at 18:14
  • @user3067860 I don't think that's true. There's no logical reason "any" and "no" can't have various and overlapping meanings just because they also have opposing meanings. There are plenty of words that have multiple meanings that are nearly opposites of each other. "Sanction", "clip", "fast", and "oversight" are examples. There's little doubt that "any" can mean some in some contexts and none in others. – David Schwartz Jan 12 '21 at 18:48
  • What happens if we remove the negation from the auxiliary? I can get no satisfaction doesn't seem to be the same as I can get any satisfaction – actually, they may mean even quite the opposite. But the context is still the same in both cases. How does this agree with your last statement? – Schmuddi Jan 12 '21 at 18:52
  • Changing "can't" to "can" completely changes the meaning of the word "any" by changing its polarity. In that case, "no" and "any" have totally different meanings. One is a negative and the other isn't. – David Schwartz Jan 12 '21 at 18:53
  • @DavidSchwartz If you want to say that in this case "any" is all values including none, then the sentence "I can't get any satisfaction" is nonsensical--you either have some or you don't, but there's no way to avoid having being in one of those states, so you always have (any including none). Fortunately standard English would parse "any" as being more than none in this case. If the answer to "Do you have any Grey Poupon?" is yes then you feel fairly confident that there will be more than none. – user3067860 Jan 12 '21 at 19:39
  • @user3067860 I completely agree. In "I can't get any satisfaction", "any" means "more than none". In "I can't get no satisfaction", "no" means "more than none". Again, it's not at all unusual for words to have several different meanings including meanings that are opposite that require other words to signal which meaning is intended. See the list of examples I gave. – David Schwartz Jan 12 '21 at 21:10
  • @DavidSchwartz In standard English, "no" means... "no". I checked a dictionary. There was no meaning listed that in any way resembled "more than one". – user3067860 Jan 12 '21 at 21:18
  • @user3067860 "I can't get no satisfaction" isn't standard English. In any event, you need a better dictionary. Mine, for example, includes "hardly any" as one of the definitions of "no", which is nearly synonymous with "a bit more than none at all". What do you think "no" means in this sentence, "We'll have that fixed for you in no time". – David Schwartz Jan 12 '21 at 21:22
  • @DavidSchwartz Please re-read all of my comments where I explicitly say standard English, the kind taught in grade school. (Although for the record, "I can't get hardly any satisfaction--it's either lots or none at all," at least makes sense, but still doesn't seem to be the intended meaning.) – user3067860 Jan 12 '21 at 21:39
  • @Cerberus_Reinstate_Monica True, although here, the meanings of "any" and "no" are limited to nothing, negation, emphasis, and quantification. In any case, I feel like this answer best explains what Pinker probably meant. – MWB Jan 13 '21 at 16:34
  • @MaxB: Why that limitation? Why couldn't any be more complex? Language is very complex, much more so than my simple mathematical example. – Cerberus - Reinstate Monica Jan 13 '21 at 21:44
  • @Cerberus_Reinstate_Monica 2² and 2+2 don't mean the same thing, even if they result in the same value. However, "I can't get any satisfaction" and "I can't get no satisfaction" do in fact mean the same thing. Each word in one labels the very same concept as each word in the other. – David Schwartz Jan 31 '21 at 23:28
  • @DavidSchwartz: "...do in fact mean the same thing. Each word in one labels the very same concept as each word in the other." — This is only true in some ways, but not in others. The analogy is that the elements of a sentence may be different even when the total is the same. – Cerberus - Reinstate Monica Feb 01 '21 at 00:36
  • @Cerberus_Reinstate_Monica Right, but they're not here. As I said, each word in one sentence labels the very same concept as the corresponding word in the other. If you think otherwise, which word and what two concepts? – David Schwartz Feb 01 '21 at 00:42
  • @DavidSchwartz: "Any" and "no". – Cerberus - Reinstate Monica Feb 01 '21 at 02:06
  • @Cerberus_Reinstate_Monica As I argued, if every other word labels the same concept and the sentence as a whole means the same thing, it's very hard to argue that the two words remaining label opposing concepts. We agree everything but "any" and "no" mean the same thing and we agree the sentence means the same thing. How can you argue the two words are doing different things? – David Schwartz Feb 01 '21 at 03:47
  • @David: Words are best not viewed as labels for objects nor as bricks in a building, but rather as proteins in a cell. They do different things depending on context, they are flexible, they have hidden insides, and they are unpredictable. A word has little meaning except by its context. Just because two words seem to result in the same sentence in a certain situation, that doesn't mean they are the same. There are many different ways to get the same result. Language is just far to complex to draw conclusions in the way of the exact sciences. So I think this is just not the right approach. – Cerberus - Reinstate Monica Feb 01 '21 at 16:47
  • @Cerberus_Reinstate_Monica Am I supposed to be explaining Pinker's reasoning or convincing you that it's correct? – David Schwartz Feb 01 '21 at 16:49
  • @DavidSchwartz: No obligation rests upon you at all. I'm just explaining why I would reach a different conclusion. – Cerberus - Reinstate Monica Feb 01 '21 at 22:53