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I am wondering about express something in the habitual voice over time. As an example of something non-habitual, I might say:

  • I have been running through the park for 30 minutes.

I think that'd be interpreted by anyone to indicate for the last 30 minutes the speaker has been actively running through the park.

But what about?

  • I have been running through the park for two weeks.

Grammatically the same as above, but I think one has to take a habitual interpretation that maybe every day the speaker has ran through the park, but not all day and maybe not even at the time of speech. That habbit extends from two weeks ago up until the time of speech.

I wonder, for this habitual sense, is it the same or better to say:

  • I have run through the park for two weeks.

I'm not sure how using the present tense (ran) here instead of be+[-ing] changes. Does it make it clearly habitual? Or is it indicating we don't know when the two week period ended (as opposed to knowing it referes to the last two weeks)?

John Lawler
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    I think for the habitual sense you would normally say "I have run through the park every day for two weeks." – Stuart F Mar 23 '21 at 16:24
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    No; you use the same expression ('I have been running through the park for [TIME]'.) The length of the time will disambiguate (action just finished or still continuing vs habitual, iterative action still occurring at intervals) on the grounds of pragmatics. Dialogue context will often help too. // There might be the occasional example where clarification is needed. – Edwin Ashworth Mar 23 '21 at 16:24
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    Note that it's "I have run" not "I have ran", although this seems a common mistake: https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/390341/using-have-ran-or-have-run – Stuart F Mar 23 '21 at 16:25
  • hah, two comments with one representing each of the views I can't decide between. – Frank Schwieterman Mar 23 '21 at 16:31
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    Both are possible, but I have run needs something added such as every day, every few days. – Kate Bunting Mar 23 '21 at 16:42
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  • @FumbleFingers No, that question is not dealing with the habitual aspect. – Frank Schwieterman Mar 23 '21 at 17:57
  • @KateBunting That sounds like the right answer to me. I think I was mistaken I could imply the habitual by using the present perfect tense, since either form I listed is compatible with a habitual interpretation. – Frank Schwieterman Mar 23 '21 at 18:03
  • The perfect already has a habitual interpretation with verbs where repetition can be assumed: I've run in the park for years or I've been running in the park for years are both good and equally habitual. – John Lawler Mar 23 '21 at 20:17
  • "I have done it" conveys a sense like, I have done it all these days; or like, "I have done it, thus my part is over." or even, "I have done it; thus I know about it well." etc. "I have been doing it" differs from the above. However, for both these, the timers 'for/since' are used. – Ram Pillai Mar 24 '21 at 04:46

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