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There is to be no more loss today.

In this sentence, I don’t understand the grammar structure. Why does “to be” come after “there is”?

tchrist
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Mutlucan
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  • I'm afraid it's difficult to analyse awkward-sounding sentences. 'There is to be no more slavery in the state from this day' can show intent / requirement, or, from a historical perspective, can be a statement detailing what actually happened. – Edwin Ashworth Jun 03 '21 at 17:45
  • Do you understand this sentence? “She is to call home immediately.” What about this one? “I’m to bring dinner rolls.” If not, then I recommend that you visit our sister site for [ell.se]. – tchrist Jun 03 '21 at 18:20
  • Related. – tchrist Feb 25 '24 at 17:33

1 Answers1

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There is [to be no more loss today.]

You asked about the grammar.

"There" is the raised subject of the (catenative) matrix verb "be", but the NP "no more loss today" is the displaced subject of the second "be".

The embedded "be" clause is best analysed as existential even though "there" does not appear as subject of that clause but is located higher in the constituent structure of the sentence.

BillJ
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  • Thanks but what I don’t understand is to be usage in this sentence. What is the name of grammer rule or topic name of this usage? Is it about there is/are or to be itself? – Mutlucan Jun 03 '21 at 18:05
  • It’s hard to understand for my English level I guess. Because I don’t even know what matrix verb or higher subject is. Thank you. I have to improve my English. – Mutlucan Jun 03 '21 at 18:23